Let a 0 = 1 , b 0 = 2 , and for n ≥ 0 a n + 1 = 2 a n + b n , b n + 1 = a n + 1 b n . If n → ∞ lim a n b n = π d c for positive integers c and d , find c + d .
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How do you know working out with. Cosine function would help ? I mean a 0 could be any function, so how cos x comes to mind ?
You just nailed every bit of it👏👏👏
b n b n + 1 2 = a n + 1
b n 2 b n + 1 2 = a n + b n
b n 2 b n + 1 2 = b n − 1 b n 2 + b n
Dividing by b n ,
b n 2 2 b n + 1 2 = b n − 1 b n + 1
Substitute t n = b n − 1 b n ,
2 t n + 1 2 − 1 = t n
This hints 2 cos 2 ( x ) − 1 = cos ( 2 x ) , so here we go,
t n = cos ( 2 n − 1 x )
where x = cos − 1 ( t 1 ) = cos − 1 ( b 0 b 1 ) = cos − 1 ( 2 b a + b ) .
b 0 b n = t n t n − 1 t n − 2 ⋯ t 1 = k = 1 ∏ n cos ( 2 k − 1 x )
The product can be found by multiplying and dividing by sin ( 2 n − 1 x ) .
b n = b 2 n sin ( 2 n − 1 x ) sin ( 2 x )
β = 2 x b sin ( 2 x ) n → ∞ lim 2 n − 1 x sin ( 2 n − 1 x ) 1
β = x b sin ( x ) cos ( x ) = cos − 1 ( 2 b a + b ) b 2 b a + b 2 b a − b
Now using 2 cos − 1 ( x ) = cos − 1 ( 2 x 2 − 1 ) ,
β = cos − 1 ( b a ) b 2 − a 2
It can be shown easily that α = β .
It has some good history. Shwaub -Shoenberg mean. Shwaub proved it by some rather geometrical rigor. Shoenberg's proof was a very different kind. He proved that cos − 1 ( b n a n ) b n 2 − a n 2 is constant.
In fact a similar kind also prompted 14-year old Gauss, it was -
a n = 2 a n + b n , b n = a n b n
a 0 = a , b 0 = b .
Can anyone give me a hint how to do it?
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@Mark Hennings A t n can be found just like I did above but no further success.
If a > b > 0 , define a 0 = a , b 0 = b and, inductively, a n + 1 = 2 1 ( a n + b n ) , b n + 1 = a n b n If 0 < b n < a n then it follows that 0 < b n < b n + 1 < a n + 1 < a n and moreover 0 < a n + 1 − b n + 1 < 2 1 ( a n − b n ) Thus the sequence ( a n ) is decreasing and bounded below, and the sequence ( b n ) is increasing and bounded above. Thus both sequences converge. Since 0 < a n − b n < 2 − n ( a − b ) , both sequences converge to the same limit M ( a , b ) , called the arithmetic-geometric mean of a and b .
Now define I ( a , b ) = ∫ 0 ∞ ( x 2 + a 2 ) ( x 2 + b 2 ) d x for any 0 < b < a . Note that 2 a π = ∫ 0 ∞ x 2 + a 2 d x ≤ I ( a , b ) ≤ ∫ 0 ∞ x 2 + b 2 d x = 2 b π This integral can be expressed in term of the complete elliptic integral of the first kind.
If 0 < b < a and we define a ^ = 2 1 ( a + b ) , b ^ = a b , then the substitution 2 x = t − t a b gives I ( a ^ , b ^ ) = ∫ 0 ∞ ( x 2 + a ^ 2 ) ( x 2 + b ^ 2 ) d x = 2 1 ∫ − ∞ ∞ ( x 2 + a ^ 2 ) ( x 2 + b ^ 2 ) d x = ∫ 0 ∞ ( t 2 + a 2 ) ( t 2 + b 2 ) d t = I ( a , b )
Putting this all together, we have 2 a n π ≤ I ( a n , b n ) = I ( a , b ) ≤ 2 b n π n ≥ 1 and so, letting n → ∞ , 2 M ( a , b ) π ≤ I ( a , b ) ≤ 2 M ( a , b ) π so that M ( a , b ) = 2 I ( a , b ) π
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Well, I appreciate what you did but does this come out of experience -
"Now define I ( a , b ) = ⋯ " ?
I find it difficult to follow.
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@Kartik Sharma – Experience, or knowing Gauss' result. The tricky part is chasing the change of variable through to show that I does not change after one stage of AM/GM calculation. The formula for I is readily available (Wikipedia, Mathworld), the proof is less easy to find.
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Suppose that a 0 = 2 cos x and b 0 = 2 for some 0 < x < 2 1 π . It is a simple induction to show that b n = 2 j = 1 ∏ n cos ( 2 j x ) a n = b n cos ( 2 n x ) n ≥ 1 . and a second induction shows that b n = 2 n sin 2 n x 2 sin x n ≥ 1 From this last formula it is clear that β = n → ∞ lim b n = x 2 sin x and therefore that α = n → ∞ lim a n = n → ∞ lim b n cos ( 2 n x ) = β In our case, x = 3 1 π , and hence α = β = π 3 3 , making the answer 2 7 + 2 = 2 9 .