n → ∞ lim 1 n + 2 n + 3 n + ⋯ + n n n + n 2 + n 3 + ⋯ + n n
What is the value of this limit?
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You can’t always add limits (n -> +inf) if the sum depends on n.
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I think using this"adding limits" is fine,because the series converges,and e n 1 approaches 0.I'll come up with a better explanation for this.
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Try then to consider u k , n = 1 if k = n and 0 if k = n instead of u k , n = ( n n − k ) n .
Have a look at my solution...
This is a very intuitive approach
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well.. i don't know, put i presume this approach has its origin in a very basic thing to be done in similar cases: dividing by n^n both upper and lower sides of the initial fraction... personally i did just that and then i didn't know what to do with those ((n-1)/n)^n :))) so i didn't make it to the end...:((
Remarkable observation which I definitely missed out
The limits are different. The answer is 1.
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Yes u are completely wrong
Its because the fractions are zero as their denominator approaches infinity hence the only 1 is left!!!
Elegant approach, I have learned from that!
Could u pls illustrate on the second last step of your solution(before e summation)!!!
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e x = n → ∞ lim ( 1 + n x ) n
When we see the expression in the numerator, it is a polynomial of some k-1 degrees and when we see the denominator we find it contains some exponents of n. It is always true that a exponent of n overcomes a polynomial of n. so as n goes to infinity it is actually a very small value divided by a very very large value and is almost same like 1/(infinity). So the Answer should be 0.
why is the sum n^k = n^n ? could you explain that pls
But why didnt u consider the indeterminant form of 1^infinity?
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Just divide both numerator and denominator by n^n. Solve both of them separately.
How is 2^n=((n-1)/n)^n? The second from the last step?
We need a little care with the convergence, here. Certainly N ( n ) = j = 1 ∑ n n j = n − 1 n ( n n − 1 ) and hence n → ∞ lim n − n N ( n ) = n → ∞ lim n − 1 n ( 1 − n − n ) = 1 On the other hand, we have D ( n ) = j = 1 ∑ n j n = j = 0 ∑ n − 1 ( n − j ) n so that n − n D ( n ) = j = 0 ∑ n − 1 ( 1 − n j ) n We have to be a little careful about letting n tend to infinity both in the argument ( 1 − n j ) n and as a limit of the sum simultaneously. Since d x d [ ( n + 1 ) ln ( 1 − n + 1 x ) − n ln ( 1 − n x ) ] = ( n − x ) ( n + 1 − x ) x > 0 0 < x < n we deduce that ( 1 − n x ) n < ( 1 − n + 1 x ) n + 1 for 0 < x < n , and hence ( 1 − n x ) n (for n > x ) converges to e − x in a monotonic increasing manner. Thus we deduce that n − n D ( n ) is an increasing sequence, and that n − n D ( n ) = j = 0 ∑ n − 1 ( 1 − n j ) n ≤ j = 0 ∑ n − 1 e − j < j = 0 ∑ ∞ e − j = 1 − e − 1 1 = e − 1 e for all n . In particular, this implies that lim n → ∞ n − n D ( n ) exists. Now, n − n D ( n ) ≥ j = 0 ∑ N − 1 ( 1 − n j ) n n ≥ N for any positive integer N , and hence (letting n → ∞ ) e − 1 e ≥ n → ∞ lim n − n D ( n ) ≥ j = 0 ∑ N − 1 e − j for any positive integer N . Now we can let N → ∞ to deduce that lim n → ∞ n − n D ( n ) = e − 1 e . Thus n → ∞ lim D ( n ) N ( n ) = n → ∞ lim n − n D ( n ) n − n N ( n ) = e e − 1 = 0 . 6 3 2 1 2 0 5 5 8 8
Thank you for posting a rigorous argument.
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I am concerned about the conclusion from the derivative calculation. Did not the inequality only prove the difference is increasing; not that it is positive (which would be necessary for the exponential sequence to be strictly increasing)?
I think this monotonicity is correct, and a little algebra will show it from the similar property of the defining approximants for e (which can be shown intuitively using the integral definition).
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The function is increasing for 0 < x < 1 and zero at x = 0 , and hence positive for 0 < x < 1 .
Alternatively, consider applying the AM/GM inequality to n copies of 1 − n x and one copy of 1 .
Relevant wiki: Bernoulli numbers
In the following solution, B n represent the Bernoulli numbers.
A = n → ∞ lim 1 + 2 n + . . . + n n n + n 2 + . . . + n n
= n → ∞ lim n + 1 n n + 1 + 2 n n + ( 1 n ) 2 B 2 n n − 1 + ( 3 n ) 4 B 4 n n − 3 + . . . n − 1 n n + 1 − n
= n → ∞ lim n + 1 n − 1 n n + 1 + 2 n − 1 n n + ( n − 1 ) ( 1 n ) 2 B 2 n n − 1 + ( n − 1 ) ( 3 n ) 4 B 4 n n − 3 + . . . n n + 1 − n
(ignoring all n n , n n − 1 , n n − 2 …)
= 1 + 2 1 + 1 ! 1 2 B 2 + 3 ! 1 4 B 4 + . . . 1
= k = 0 ∑ ∞ k ! B k + 1 1 (with B 0 = 1 , B 1 = − 2 1 , B 3 = B 5 = B 7 = . . . = 0 )
On the other hand, we have f ( x ) = e x − 1 x = k = 0 ∑ ∞ B k k ! x k , so
A = k = 0 ∑ ∞ k ! B k + 1 1 = f ( 1 ) + 1 1 = e e − 1 = 1 − e 1
can you give detailed explanation?. you are ignoring some terms. it is not clear.
ok i got it.
n → ∞ lim 1 n + 2 n + 3 n + ⋯ + n n n + n 2 + n 3 + ⋯ + n n = n → ∞ lim n n ( 1 + ( n n − 1 ) n + ( n n − 2 ) n + ( n n − 3 ) n + ⋯ + ( n n − ( n − 1 ) ) n ) n n ( 1 + n 1 + n 2 1 + n 3 1 + ⋯ + n n − 1 1 ) = n → ∞ lim ∑ k = 0 n − 1 ( 1 − n k ) n ∑ k = 0 n − 1 ( n 1 ) k = ∑ k = 0 ∞ e − k 1 = 1 − e − 1 1 1 = 1 − e − 1 ≈ 0 . 6 3 2 1 2
n n − 1 = ( n − 1 ) ( n n − 1 + n n − 2 + . . . + 1 ) ⟹ n n − 1 + n n − 2 + . . . + 1 = n − 1 n n − 1 ⟹ ∑ p = 1 n n p = n − 1 n ( n n − 1 )
Dividing numerator and denominator by n n ⟹ n → ∞ lim 1 n + 2 n + 3 n + ⋯ + n n n + n 2 + n 3 + ⋯ + n n = lim n → ∞ ∑ j = 0 n − 1 ( 1 − n j ) n ( 1 − n n 1 ) ( 1 + n − 1 1 ) = ∑ n = 0 ∞ ( e 1 ) n 1 = 1 − e 1 1 1 = e e − 1 ≈ 0 . 6 3 2 1 2
Obviously only for verification purposes.
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Let the limit equals A
n → ∞ lim n n k = 1 ∑ n n k = n → ∞ lim n n n + n 2 + n 3 + n 4 + ⋯ + n n = n → ∞ lim ( 1 + n 1 + n 2 1 + n 3 1 + ⋯ + n n − 1 1 ) = 1
A = n → ∞ lim k = 1 ∑ n k n k = 1 ∑ n n k = n → ∞ lim k = 1 ∑ n k n n n
A 1 = n → ∞ lim n n k = 1 ∑ n k n = n → ∞ lim n n 1 n + 2 n + 3 n + 4 n + ⋯ + n n = n → ∞ lim ( 1 + ( n n − 1 ) n + ( n n − 2 ) n + ( n n − 3 ) n + ⋯ ) = 1 + e 1 + e 2 1 + e 3 1 + ⋯ = e − 1 e , A = e e − 1