If ln x 1 + ln x 2 + ⋯ + ln x n = 1 , where each ln x i is a proper fraction. Find the greatest integral value of ln x − ⌊ ln x 1 × ln x ⌋ − ⌊ ln x 2 × ln x ⌋ − ⋯ − ⌊ ln x n × ln x ⌋
where n = 1 0 1 , and ln x is an integer.
Notation : ⌊ ⋅ ⌋ denotes the floor function .
This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try
refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and,
finally, (c)
loading the
non-javascript version of this page
. We're sorry about the hassle.
Good approach of simplifying the problem, which helps make it easier to resolve.
Ok but how can this be striked to anyone that a=1/101 and b=100
Log in to reply
I did it by assuming a = 1 / 1 0 0 and b = 1 0 0 .
Log in to reply
How assuming can be a perfect solution
Log in to reply
@Prince Loomba – I am not claiming that making an assumption is a perfect solution, your solution or of Ivan's can be called perfect as they present a logical way to deal with the problem. My method is only helpful if you need to solve the problem quickly. : )
I showed that the upper bound is 100. I now need to show that it can be achieved (so that it is indeed a maximum).
hey please use max rather than (greatest integral value) it confused me
Very detailed solution @Ivan Koswara ! +1
Problem Loading...
Note Loading...
Set Loading...
First, let's decipher the problem.
Thus, after removing the fluff:
Now, we know that ⌊ x ⌋ > x − 1 . Thus,
⌊ a 1 b ⌋ + ⌊ a 2 b ⌋ + … + ⌊ a 1 0 1 b ⌋ > ( a 1 b − 1 ) + ( a 2 b − 1 ) + … + ( a 1 0 1 b − 1 ) = ( a 1 + a 2 + … + a 1 0 1 ) b − 1 0 1 = b − 1 0 1
Thus, b − ( ⌊ a 1 b ⌋ + ⌊ a 2 b ⌋ + … + ⌊ a 1 0 1 b ⌋ ) < b − ( b − 1 0 1 ) = 1 0 1 . Since the left hand side of the inequality is an integer, we must then have b − ( ⌊ a 1 b ⌋ + ⌊ a 2 b ⌋ + … + ⌊ a 1 0 1 b ⌋ ) ≤ 1 0 0 . This is easily achievable with a 1 = a 2 = … = a 1 0 1 = 1 0 1 1 , b = 1 0 0 , so the answer is 1 0 0 .