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Complex logarithms exist, but are interpreted as multi-valued functions.
It's tough to judge the context of this problem, and for people who are studying logarithms over the (positive) reals, this doesn't exist. As such, I have clarified that the context, that we should treat this as a complex logarithm.
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then, Calvin wich is the complex logarithm ln e ? 1 or 1 + 2 i π or 1 + 4 i π ... or? and in this case, which is lo g − 6 − 6 ? because − 6 = ( − 6 ) 1 = ( − 6 ) e 2 i π = ( − 6 ) e 4 i π ? don't you believe,in this case, if we don't stablish the domain and range of a continuous "log" the answer is not defined?I'm only asking, I'm very curious...
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As I stated, they are multi-valued functions, and so they have their own interpretations which could differ from your intuitive understanding of functions.
If f is a multi-valued function, then we say that f ( a ) = b if b is one of the possible values of f ( a ) .
The idea of continuity can also be extended, namely, a multi-valued function is continuous at f ( a ) = b , if there exists a (single valued) function f b ( x ) in the neighbourhood of ( a , b ) such that f ( x ) = f b ( x ) and f b ( x ) is a continuous function.
As an example, the argument function on the complex plane, can be defined as a multi-valued function where the values differ by multiples of 2 π . Then, we can see that ar g is continuous at all points other than ar g ( 0 ) (which is a reason why it's often left as undefined).
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@Calvin Lin – Then,Are you saying me then for example, that multivalued function x 3 1 on and over the complex numbers and what if I take one single valued function of these functions is continuous in a neighborhood of 0 ?
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@Guillermo Templado – The multivalued function f : C → C , f ( x ) = x 3 1 is continuous at every point.
Typically, we like to stay away from "branch" points, because it leads to messiness. It is nicer to consider the function as a "stack of pancakes" (manifold), where the restriction to each layer keeps things nice.
For example, the inverse function theorem also extends to manifolds as we would expect it to.
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@Calvin Lin – Sorry, but the maltivalued function f : C → C f ( x ) = x 3 1 is not continuous in any neighborhood of 0, and I'm going to say why? Let the circumference { x ∈ C / ∣ x ∣ = r } r ∈ R , r > 0 is contained in a neighborhood of 0. Let x = r ⋅ e i θ then if we walked a loop around this circumference (spin along) the circunference we would get r 3 1 = r 3 1 ⋅ e 3 2 i π which it is not true, for that this function can't be continuous in any neighborhood of 0, and for that, althought you can take the principal logarithm to be the most beautiful and clear logarithm for this problem, you can cause ambiguety to the people, like in this case to me, althought I don't mind my level and credits, I only mind everything is allright.
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@Calvin Lin – Then if { x ∈ C / ∣ x ∣ = r r ∈ R , r > 0 } ⊂ V f ( x ) = x 3 1 is continuous in V . Great .... don't worry, I have and picked up a lot of books about manifolds and generalized surfaces.... and my question is why l o g − 6 − 6 = 1 and it isn't infinite values, I mean − 6 = 6 ⋅ e i π = 6 ⋅ e 3 i π , then what is ln ( − 6 ) = ln ∣ 6 ∣ + i π or ln ( − 6 ) = ln ∣ 6 ∣ + 3 i π ?and then what is lo g − 6 e ?... and then what is lo g − 6 − 6 ?
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@Guillermo Templado – As I stated above:
As I stated, they are multi-valued functions, and so they have their own interpretations which could differ from your intuitive understanding of functions.
If f is a multi-valued function, then we say that f ( a ) = b if b is one of the possible values of f ( a ) .
So, we say that lo g − 6 − 6 = 1 because ( − 6 ) 1 = − 6 . Similarly, we can say that ln 1 = 0 and ln 1 = 2 π i and ln 1 = − 2 π i . However, this does not imply that 0 = 2 π i .
Simlarly, when dealing with the multi-valued "square root", even though we want to say that 1 = 1 and 1 = − 1 , we cannot conclude that 1 = − 1 (which is the common way to arrive at the fallacy.
But any power of 10 can't be negative.
They can be.
Precisely, lo g 1 0 ( − 6 ) = ln 1 0 i π + ln 6
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This is true. But if we are dealing it on the real plane, it won't exist.
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The question does not state that. and more than that, I do not see any reason to be restricting to reals!
Also, rearranging a form to a form that makes it undefined is not a valid step.
For example, is the following valid?
0 1 = 0 2 − 1 = 0 0 2
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@Agnishom Chattopadhyay – Hmm yes you are right. Thanks for clearing.
Yeah ofcrs i agree with you. But as the classical definition of log states that negative base is undefined while dealing for reals. I have just extended that idea in he real field
Hey, it's simply 1.The answer is 1.(-6)^1=(-6).
It is simply asking what power can you give to (-6) to get (-6). Naturally the answer will be 1.
Simple way:
lo g − 6 ( − 6 ) = 1 Apply the rule: lo g a ( a ) = 1
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l o g − 6 − 6 = l o g 1 0 ( − 6 ) l o g 1 0 ( − 6 )
Let l o g 1 0 ( − 6 ) = x ⟹ 1 0 x = − 6 , But any power of 10 can't be negative. Hence it's undefined