Magnetism Series #3

A rigid ring is made to roll along the ceiling of a room, where a horizontal uniform and static magnetic field of induction B B exits perpendicular exists perpendicular to the plane of the ring. Velocity of the centre of the ring is constant and its modulus is v v .A charge particle P P of mass m m is fixed on the ring. What should the charge q q on the particle and radius r r of the ring be so that there is no force of interaction between the ring and the particle?
q = α m g B v , r = v β g q=\frac{\alpha mg}{Bv}, r=\frac{v^{\beta}}{g}
Type your answer as α + β = ? \alpha+\beta=?

The problem is taken from my Physics Book.


The answer is 3.

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1 solution

Karan Chatrath
Sep 1, 2020

Consider an inertial frame of reference where the X-axis points horizontally to the right and the Y-axis points upwards. Let the angular velocity of the ring be ω \omega . The coordinates of the point are, at a general instant of time:

x = v t + R sin ω t x = vt + R\sin{\omega t} y = R R cos ω t y = -R - R\cos{\omega t}

The position vector of this point is:

r = x i ^ + y j ^ \vec{r} = x \ \hat{i} + y \ \hat{j} r = ( v t + R sin ω t ) i ^ + ( R R cos ω t ) j ^ \implies \vec{r} = (vt + R\sin{\omega t}) \ \hat{i} + (-R - R\cos{\omega t}) \ \hat{j}

The velocity vector is, therefore:

v = d r d t = ( v + R ω cos ω t ) i ^ + ( R ω sin ω t ) j ^ \vec{v} = \frac{d\vec{r}}{dt} = (v + R\omega\cos{\omega t}) \ \hat{i} + (R\omega\sin{\omega t}) \ \hat{j}

Since the ring is purely rolling:

v = R ω v = R \omega

v = ( v + v cos ω t ) i ^ + ( v sin ω t ) j ^ \implies \vec{v} = (v + v\cos{\omega t}) \ \hat{i} + (v\sin{\omega t}) \ \hat{j}

The magnetic force on the particle is:

F B = q ( v × B ) = q v B ( sin ω t i ^ + ( 1 + cos ω t ) j ^ ) \vec{F}_B=q(\vec{v} \times \vec{B}) = qvB\left(-\sin{\omega t} \ \hat{i} + (1+\cos{\omega t}) \ \hat{j}\right)

The gravitational force on the particle is:

F G = m g j ^ \vec{F}_G = -mg \ \hat{j}

The total force on the particle is:

F = F B + F G = q v B sin ω t i ^ + ( q v B ( 1 + cos ω t ) m g ) j ^ \vec{F} = \vec{F}_B+\vec{F}_G = -qvB\sin{\omega t} \ \hat{i} +\left(qvB (1+\cos{\omega t})-mg\right) \ \hat{j}

The acceleration of the particle is:

a = d v d t = R ω 2 sin ω t i ^ + R ω 2 cos ω t j ^ \vec{a} = \frac{d\vec{v}}{dt} = -R\omega^2\sin{\omega t} \ \hat{i} + R\omega^2\cos{\omega t} \ \hat{j}

Newton's second law:

F = m a \vec{F} = m\vec{a}

Equating the X and Y components of LHS and RHS, one gets the following equations:

q v B = m R ω 2 = m g qvB = mR\omega^2=mg v = R ω v = R \omega

Solving these gives:

R = v 2 g \boxed{R = \frac{v^2}{g}} q = m g B v \boxed{q = \frac{mg}{Bv}}

@Karan Chatrath Thanks, Now,I understand the whole solution completely.
Except one thing in the 2nd step how did you parametise the y coordinate of the ring?

Talulah Riley - 9 months, 2 weeks ago

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The origin lies on the ceiling and the Y axis points upwards. The particle is in the lower half of the circle at the instant I parameterised it. Does this explain the situation?

Karan Chatrath - 9 months, 2 weeks ago

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@Karan Chatrath assuming θ = ω t \theta=\omega t then your θ \theta is taken from which direction?

Talulah Riley - 9 months, 2 weeks ago

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@Talulah Riley θ = 0 \theta=0 when the particle is at the lowermost point of the ring. The rotation is anti-clockwise

Karan Chatrath - 9 months, 2 weeks ago

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@Karan Chatrath @Karan Chatrath Yes, Thanks.

Talulah Riley - 9 months, 2 weeks ago

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