I draw a vector r 1 in the plane, and a vector r 2 orthogonal to r 1 . Their resultant vector is then R 1 .
Then, I draw a vector r 3 orthogonal to R 1 with their resultant being R 2 .
Following this pattern, I keep on drawing vectors and resultants ad infinitum.
If ∣ r 1 ∣ ∣ r n ∣ = n 1 for all n ≥ 1 and ∣ R ∞ ∣ = π , find the dot product of r 1 with itself.
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When the problem says R ∞ = π , it should say ∣ R ∞ ∣ = π .
Hi , good question , should get at least a Level 4 rating . And thanks for the proof of k = 1 ∑ ∞ k 2 1 = 6 π 2 , as I used wolfram Alpha to evaluate the sum .
Also I have a doubt , what's the difference between using () and [] in LaTEX ?
Thanks for the same .
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() does not center your LaTeX, but [] does (and creates a new line for the maths). The former is useful for inserting just small, not-so-important statements/terms/etc, whereas the latter shows your steps more clearly.
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Thanks and keep posting such good questions .
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@A Former Brilliant Member – You're welcome! Happy solving.
kinda overrated now...
Good use of the Basel Problem.
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We know that
∣ R ∞ ∣ = ∣ r 1 ∣ 2 + ∣ r 2 ∣ 2 + ∣ r 3 ∣ 2 + … = ∣ r 1 ∣ k = 1 ∑ ∞ k 2 1 = π
Since we know ∣ r 1 ∣ k = 1 ∑ ∞ k 2 1 = ∣ r 1 ∣ 6 π 2 = π , it follows that
r 1 ⋅ r 1 = ∣ r 1 ∣ 2 = 6