How many ordered pairs of positive integers ( A , B ) , each of which are between 1 and 100 inclusive, are there such that
A B = B A ?
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there are no solutions for n>2 ,this can be proved by Fermat's last theorem maybe
It is true that there are no solutions for n>2. But can u prove it please..
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Look that A = n − 1 n .
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I proved it using induction on the exponent.
How is it proved from the above equation that it is not true for n>2.
I can prove it, but no margin
better than mine,I used lnx .
Why should B = A n with n = A B integer ?
Here's a proof.
Let B ≥ A , and let B = p i p r i m e ∏ p i m i and A = p i p r i m e ∏ p i n i .
A B = ∏ p i n i ∏ p i m i = ∏ p i m i − n i is an integer iif m i − n i ≥ 0 ∀ i .
B A = A B ⇔ ∏ p i m i A = ∏ p i n i B ⇔ m i A = n i B ∀ i .
Then m i = A n i B ∀ i and so m i − n i = n i A B − A ≥ 0 .
can we do it by watching the patterns closely in the no.s
A=B makes 100 then (2,4) is the only ORDERED pair I find For 101
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(4,2) is another ordered pair, different from (2,4) (this is what "ordered" means).
Lemma: B is a power of A: Proof: Suppose B is not a power of A then B has a prime factor that is not in A, Call this prime p, We note that B^A is a multiple of p but A^B is not. Hence B=A^n. We are asked to solve A^(A^n)=(A^n)^(A)=A^(nA) Now note that we need A^n=nA for A >= 2 (For A =1 B =1). For n =1 this statement is true for all A For n =2, A^2 =2A, A^2-2A=0. This implies A = 2 for A >=2 For n >=3 we need A^n-nA=0, or A(A^(n-1)-n)=0 or A^(n-1)-n =0 for A>=2. Note that A = n^(1/(n-1)) Now this result is atleast 2 and hence n>= 2^(n-1) which is false for n>= 3. Note that only solutions are (A,A), (2,2^2), and by symmetry (2^2,2). We let A run through 1 to 100 for 100 solutions and note that there are 2 additional solutions making a total of 102 solutions
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The argument you use in your proof is not sufficient.
Suppose B is not a power of A then B has a prime factor that is not in A.
Consider A=4 and B=8. It's obvious that B is not a power of A. But B doesn't have any prime factor that is not in A, as you claim in your proof.
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To be more specific there are solutions only if B is a power of A
We know that A = B is a trivial solution for all 1 ≤ A ≤ 1 0 0 .
If A = 1 , we already know that B = 1 is the only possibility.
If A = 2 , we already know that B = 2 or B = 4 are the only possibilities.
Suppose A ≥ 3 . Let f A ( x ) = A x − x A and let's find B such that f A ( B ) = 0 .
f A ( m ) ( x ) = A x ln m ( A ) − ( A − m ) ! A ! x A − m , ∀ 1 ≤ m ≤ A and so f A ( A + 1 ) ( x ) = A x ln A + 1 ( A ) > 0 , ∀ x ≥ A .
f A ( m ) ( x ) > 0 , ∀ x ≥ A a n d 1 ≤ m ≤ A : (by induction)
f A ( m ) ( A ) = A A ln m ( A ) − ( A − m ) ! A ! A A − m > A A − A m A A − m = 0 and as by induction ( f A ( m ) ) ′ ( x ) = f A ( m + 1 ) ( x ) > 0 , the m t h derivative is increasing from a positive value and is then positive ∀ x ≥ A .
As f A ′ ( x ) > 0 , ∀ x ≥ A and f A ( A ) = 0 , f A ( x ) > 0 , ∀ x > A .
So B cannot be > A . But if B > 2 , then A B = B A ⇔ B A = A B and then A cannot be > B . So A = B or B ≤ 2 , but we have already found all those solutions.
How can we prove that for n >2 there are no solutions. Please explain clearly and in detail..
Why is 2 not the answer? Because A and B are two different variables which cannot take the same value as seen in c r y p t a r i t h m e t i c questions. So other 100 value should not be considered.
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The problem does not state that the numbers have to be distinct. It asks for ordered pairs of integers, which allows for them to be equal. E.g. ( 1 , 1 ) is considered a point in the plane.
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sir, what does cryptarithmetic question as used by genius VISHAL YADAV?
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@Manvendra Singh – Cryptogram - Problem Solving might be helpful.
We can try to give an analytical proof here. The motivation comes from A B = B A ⟺ A A 1 = B B 1 .
For A = B , both sides are equal, in which case there are 100 solutions. For A = B , we claim that only ( 2 , 4 ) and ( 4 , 2 ) are the solutions (no other ( A , B ) can satisfy A A 1 = B B 1 ). The following justifies this claim.
Proof :
Let f ( x ) = x x 1 for x > 0 .
By inspection, f ( 1 ) < f ( 2 ) = f ( 4 ) < f ( 3 ) . Now differentiating f w.r.t. x yields
f ′ ( x ) = x 2 x x 1 ( 1 − ln x ) ,
which shows that f ′ ( x ) > 0 when x < e , f ′ ( x ) = 0 when x = e , and f ′ ( x ) < 0 when x > e .
Hence f is strictly increasing on ( 0 , e ] and strictly decreasing on [ e , ∞ ) . Then for positive integers m , n with m > n > 4 > e , we have f ( m ) < f ( n ) < f ( 4 ) = f ( 2 ) . Now it remains to show that f ( m ) > f ( 1 ) = 1 .
Suppose the contrary that f ( m ) = a ≤ 1 for some positive integer m > 4 . Then we find that m m 1 = a ⟹ m = a m ≤ a ≤ 1 , a contradiction with the fact that m > 4 .
Hence for positive integers m , n with m > n > 4 , we have
f ( 1 ) < f ( m ) < f ( n ) < f ( 4 ) = f ( 2 ) < f ( 3 ) .
This, in turn, means that for every positive integer n > 4 , there is no m ∈ Z + , with m = n , such that f ( m ) = f ( n ) , and hence this proves the claim. □
A^B = B^A. The equation is also equivalent to A^(B/A) = B and A | B for integral solutions. Let B = AK and so... A^K = AK. A = (AK)^(1/K), 1 = [A^([1-K]/K)][K^(1/K)] and so.... [A^(1-K)][K] = 1. Also equivalent to A^(K-1) = K. A = (K)^(1/(K-1)) which is integral when K =1 and K = 2. If K = 1, then A = B, so there are 100 ordered pairs of solutions. If K = 2, A = 2 and B = 4. (2,4) and (4,2) satisfies the equation. Hence, there are 102 ordered pairs of solutions.
But I thought that since the numbers are a and b, they need to be different......
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Yeah , me too....till almost I glanced the trick in it again :)
My solution is really intuitive, no logs involved, just basic algebra.
We have that:
A B = B A
Let's assume that B ≥ A , so we must have that A divides B. This is the same as saying that:
B = k A with k positive integer. As a consequence, substituting the previous relation, we get:
A k A = ( k A ) A
then extracting the A-th root on both sides:
A k = k A which is of course: A k − k A = 0
For k = 1 we get A − A = 0 , which is the case of A = B corresponding to 100 couples ( A , A ) .
For k = 2 we get A 2 − 2 A = 0 , whose solutions are A = 0 which is not acceptable, and A = 2 corresponding to the couples ( 2 , 4 ) and ( 4 , 2 ) for the symmetry of the problem.
For k ≥ 3 we still get A = 0 as the non-intersting solution and the absolute value of all remaining solutions equal to the ( k − 1 ) -root of k which turn out to be irrational for every k ≥ 3 .
We got 100 couples from the case k = 1 and 2 couples from the case k = 2 , for a grand total of 102 ordinate couples that satisfy the condictions of the problem.
If t=2 then a=2^2 and b=2^1, therefore a=4 and b=2, if t=1, the denominator becomes 0 producing infinity. If t>2 for example if t=3. Then we have 3^(3/2) which will not be an integer. Since t^(1/(t-1) ) cannot be an integer except for t=2
(1, 1)
(2, 2)
(2, 4)
(3, 3)
(4, 2)
(4, 4)
...
(100, 100)
Obviously, 100 + 2 = 102. I checked with computing for safety even though this may not be smart.
Answer: 102
I don't think this is a valid solution, because you simply listed the solutions. How do you know more solutions don't exist?
if A=B, we get 100 pairs, and other pairs obtain from (x^x)^x=x^(x^x). only 2^2 and 3^3 are < 101. so (A,B)=(2,4) and (3,27) Hence ans.102 . In between (4,2) and (27,3) are also possible ordered pairs. Correct answer will be 104
27^3= 3^9<3^27 , thus (3,27) doesn't satisfy the equation.
( x x ) x = x x x
27^3=3^9!!
yeah yeah.. I did mistake
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First, we have that:
A B = B A ↪ lo g A B A = B A ⋅ lo g A B = B lo g A B = A B
Now, if B = A n ,where n is a natural number n > 0
lo g A A n = A A n n = A n − 1
So, if n = 1 , we have that A = B which gives 100 solutions.
If n = 2 , we have ( 2 , 4 ) a n d ( 4 , 2 ) .
If n > 2 we don't have any solutions.
Thus, we have 102 solutions.