Let S n denote the set of all permutations of the set [ n ] = { 1 , 2 , 3 ⋯ n } .
Any permutation w ∈ S n can be written in what is called cycle notation, described here . This can be made a unique representation by requiring that the maximum element of each cycle goes first and that cycles are ordered in increasing order by their largest elements. This is known as the standard representation of a permutation. As an example, in S 4 the permutation 2 3 1 4 has a standard representation of ( 3 1 2 ) ( 4 ) .
The map ϕ n : S n → S n takes a permutation w and maps it to its standard representation without the parentheses. For how many permutations w ∈ S 1 0 does w = ϕ 1 0 ( w ) ?
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First of all, this problem intrigued me; thanks for posting it.
I am having a little trouble with the solution though.
I didn't understand your proof for "the only viable class of permutation is those with 1 or 2-cycles." Why is (4123) not a viable cycle?
I think that the cyclic condition is not that
w
k
is at
w
k
−
1
but rather
w
k
is at
w
k
+
1
except for k=i of course.
I think the answer should consequentially be
2
n
−
1
.
Consider the case of n=3.
(1)(2)(3), (1)(32), (21)(3) and (312) all seem to be acceptable. hence the answer seems to be 2^2=4 rather than the 4th fibonacci number.
Am I missing something here? Thanks for your consideration.
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In the permutation 3 1 2 , we have w ( 1 ) = 3 , w ( 3 ) = 2 , w ( 2 ) = 1 . This gives the cycle ( 3 2 1 ) , which is different. ( 3 1 2 ) on the other hand, gives w ( 3 ) = 1 , w ( 1 ) = 2 , w ( 2 ) = 3 or 2 3 1 . I think what tripped you up was reading a cycle like ( 3 1 2 ) as '3 is at index 1, 1 at index 2, 2 at index 3' when it's really '3 is at index 2, 1 at index 3, 2 at index 1'. It goes the opposite way: if w ( i ) = j then we have ( ⋯ i j ⋯ ) in cycle notation. That's why if we have ( ⋯ w k − 1 w k ⋯ ) then w ( w k − 1 ) = w k .
Hopefully this cleared things up.
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Thanks again. But then shouldn't the standard notation for the example in your question i.e. 2314 be (312)(4) instead of (321)(4)?
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@Adit Mohan – Fixed that, my bad. I guess the conclusion is that it's really easy to mess up cycle notation :p
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Let w ^ denote ϕ n ( w ) . For this problem in S n , the claim in that the number of permutations that are left unchanged by ϕ n is F n + 1 or the n+1st Fibonacci number. Since Fibonacci numbers obey a nice recurrence relation, an easy way to approach this problem is to simply show that this is obeyed using induction.
First, let w = ( C 1 ) ( C 2 ) ⋯ ( C l ) . Divide this into two cases: ∣ C l ∣ = 1 , ∣ C l ∣ = 1 . If the size of C l is one, then since this is the last cycle it must be larger than all other elements of w - that is, it must be n . For this first case, we have an unchanged permutation every time ( C 1 ) ⋯ ( C l − 1 ) = w ′ ∈ S n − 1 is fixed, and there are F n ways to do this by the induction hypothesis.
For the other case, we have C l = ( n , ⋯ k ) . Note that w ^ ( n ) = w ( n ) = k , meaning that C l is a 2-cycle of the form ( n , k ) . But we also have w ( k ) is n and since we know exactly where n is we see k = n − 1 . In the same way as the last case, we get F n − 1 ways.
Now simply verify the first few cases to see that the relationship is in fact true.
Alternative solution : Suppose that w = ( C 1 ) ( C 2 ) ⋯ ( C l ) has ∣ C i ∣ ≤ 2 . It is not difficult to see that the two conditions on the standard form force the every cycle to contain the actual indices it covers in w ^ : for example if ∣ C 1 ∣ = 2 then C 1 = ( 2 1 ) . When we go from cycle notation to the permutation, no change occurs because 1-cycles simply map to themselves and so do 2-cycles. This means that this class of permutations remains unchanged by ϕ n .
Suppose that there was a cycle C = ( w i , ⋯ w j ) over the indices i ⋯ j in some w ^ = w of size greater than two. We know that w k is at index w k − 1 (this is cyclic) from w ^ = w , and what this tells us is that since w i is the largest w i + 1 is at the largest index. This implies ∣ C ∣ ≤ 2 , a contradiction.
Using the above, the only viable class of permutation is those with 1 or 2-cycles. This is a well known problem, and has a solution of F n + 1 .