There are three fixed (immobile) charged particles in the x y -plane: a particle with charge + q at ( x , y ) = ( 0 , 1 ) , a particle with charge − q at ( x , y ) = ( − 1 , 0 ) , and a particle with charge − q at ( x , y ) = ( 1 , 0 ) .
In addition, there is a free (movable) charge of + q initially at rest at ( x , y ) = ( 0 , 0 ) .
If the net Coulomb force from the three fixed charges is the only force influencing the free charge, determine the maximum distance the free charge travels from the origin ( 0 , 0 ) before it starts to come back.
Give your answer to 2 decimal places.
Details and Assumptions:
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Could you explain the sentence that says, "When the particle begins to move upward again, it has zero speed, which is to say that the other charges have done zero net work on it since it started moving"? I don't think I understand how net work is zero.
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The electric field starts out in the downward direction, so the particle initially moves downward and picks up speed in that direction. But later, the field direction reverses, so the particle continues moving downward but with decreasing speed. Eventually, the particle comes to a halt and begins to move upward again. At that point, the net work done by the three fixed charges on the free charge is zero. It is an expression of the Work-Energy Theorem.
You could also write an expression for the electric force and then integrate it over distance to get the net work done. The integral eventually equals zero for a non-zero value of "d".
Can the last equation be solved with some mathematical reasoning ? I used wolfram for the solution of this cubic equation x 3 + 4 x 2 + x − 4
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I'm sure it can. It looks like you've already done it.
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Can you tell me the method please! Of solving that cubic equation . ( I used Wolfram as I told already ).
I don't like to use calculators much!!
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@Aniket Sanghi – I'm not really an expert on cubics either. I've heard that Vieta's formulas can be used to solve cubics. I think Brilliant has a page on it.
We had leant hit and trial method but that appears clumsy overy here!
What about d ≈ − 3 . 3 4 2 9 ? :D
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Good observation. That point is actually above the highest charge, and has the same potential as the starting point. So if you were to take hold of the test charge and drag it from the origin to that point, the other three charges would do zero net work over the entire travel path.
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Yeah, but I just asked it for a curiosity buster. Though the work done is zero, there is a infinitesimally narrow potential spike near the positive charge, which seemingly gives a ∞ integral although it is not. It would be interesting to see how you would explain this paradox. :)
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@Kishore S. Shenoy – I see. So you're saying that if you went "through" the positive charge, you would get something like a positive infinity and a negative infinity which would sum to zero. It does seem to be a bit of a paradox, if you accept as legitimate the idea of going "through" the positive charge. I don't think it makes sense to talk about going "through" the positive charge though. At that point, the situation is as much about philosophy as it is about physics.
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@Steven Chase – Can you please post more AC problems?
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@Kishore S. Shenoy – As in "alternating current"?
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@Steven Chase – Yes, alternating current. Can you? I don't get much good questions...
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@Kishore S. Shenoy – Yeah, I definitely can, and I've been thinking about it. But I've hesitated because alternating current is not part of the Brilliant curriculum, as far as I'm aware.
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@Steven Chase – Really, is there a prescribed curriculum for Brilliant? Thanks anyway!
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@Kishore S. Shenoy – There sort of is, in that you have to assign a category to each problem that you post. Although now that I look again, there is actually some AC stuff now. Stay tuned for some AC problems then.
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The particle will initially move downward under the influence of the other three charges, but will come to a halt and move upward again some time after the net force changes sign. When the particle begins to move upward again, it has zero speed, which is to say that the other charges have done zero net work on it since it started moving. This is equivalent to saying that it has gone through an electric potential difference of zero. Therefore, we can do the following:
1) Write an expression for the electric potential energy of the free charge at the origin
2) Write a general expression for the electric potential energy of the free charge when it has moved downward by a distance d
3) Equate the two expressions and solve for d
Since we are equating two potential energy expressions, the constants typically associated with such an expression cancel out and are irrelevant. I will therefore not include them.
At the origin, the normalized potential energy is ( 1 1 − 1 1 − 1 1 ) = − 1
At a distance d downward, the expression is 1 + d 1 − 1 + d 2 1 − 1 + d 2 1 = 1 + d 1 − 1 + d 2 2
The equation we solve for d is therefore 1 + d 1 − 1 + d 2 2 + 1 = 0
Solving this equation for d yields d ≈ 0 . 8 1