If x , y , and z are positive real numbers such that x + 2 y + 3 z = 1 2 , what is the largest possible value of 2 3 x y 4 z ?
This problem is posed by Michael T .
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Lagrange multipliers imply that the maximum is achieved when x = 2; y = 4 and z = 2/3. That max value is 512! :)
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I also used Lagrange multipliers to solve this problem.
Great use of AM-GM!
This problem is completely observation based.
We need to apply AM-GM inequality but not in a direct manner. We need to do some mathematical jugglery with x + 2 y + 3 z so as to get the maximum value of 2 3 x y 4 z
Observe that, we can write x + 2 y + 3 z = x + 2 y + 2 y + 2 y + 2 y + 3 z = 1 2
Now, we can apply AM-GM inequality to easily get our answer
6 x + 2 y + 2 y + 2 y + 2 y + 3 z ≥ ( 1 6 3 x y 4 z ) 6 1
( 1 6 3 x y 4 z ) 6 1 ≤ 6 1 2 = 2
1 6 3 x y 4 z ≤ 2 6 = 6 4
2 3 x y 4 z ≤ 6 4 × 8 = 5 1 2
Hence, the maximum value of 2 3 x y 4 z is 5 1 2
Is important to explain whether or not 512 is attainable!
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I think it would always be attainable.. Can you please give a counter example where a particular value is not attainable using the AM-GM inequality?
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The only reason I could see is that A M − G M is applied to non-negative reals while the problem statement asks for positive reals. Otherwise I see no reason why equality could not be attainable, when x = 2 y = 3 z .
This would give a solution of ( 2 , 4 , 3 2 ) .
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@Michael Tong – I use Lagrange multipliers to solve this problem.
I mean, it is sufficient to say "Equality occurs when x=y/2=3z=12/6". Maybe in this problem is obvious that 512 is attainable after using AM-GM, just mention when equality occurs.
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@Jorge Tipe – To explain why one has to mention that 5 1 2 can be achieved, consider the same problem, but with an additional constraint x ≤ z . Then the same AM-GM argument as in the original problem gives an upper bound of 5 1 2 . However, it is no longer the maximum, because it is not achieved. The correct maximum for this modified question is actually smaller.
Since we see y 4 so we will manipulate 2 y as 2 y + 2 y + 2 y + 2 y . Now employing AM-GM inequality as the numbers are positive, we have
6 x + 2 y + 2 y + 2 y + 2 y + 3 z ≥ ( 1 6 3 x y 4 z ) 6 1
Substituting x + 2 y + 3 z with 1 2 and raising both sides to 6 t h power we have 2 3 x y 4 z ≤ 5 1 2 .
We know x + 2 y + 3 z = 1 2 so x + 2 1 y + 2 1 y + 2 1 y + 2 1 y + 3 z = 1 2 . From AM-GM, we know
2 ≥ 6 x + 2 1 y + 2 1 y + 2 1 y + 2 1 y + 3 z ≥ 6 x ⋅ ( 2 1 y ) 4 ⋅ 3 z ≥ 6 1 6 3 x 4 z Therefore 6 4 ≥ 1 6 3 x 4 z so 5 1 2 = 6 4 ⋅ 8 ≥ 2 3 x 4 z . Equality occurs when x = 2 , y = 4 , z = 3 2 so our answer is 5 1 2 .
Notice that we can "break" up the given equation into
x + 2 y + 2 y + 2 y + 2 y + 3 z = 1 2
But by AM-GM, we have
x + 2 y + 2 y + 2 y + 2 y + 3 z ≥ 6 x 1 6 y 4 3 z
1 2 ≥ 6 x 1 6 y 4 3 z
which is equivalent to
3 1 0 2 4 ≥ x y 4 z
multiplying by 2 3 yields
5 1 2 ≥ 2 3 x y 4 z
this means that the maximum value of 2 3 x y 4 z is 5 1 2 .
Is important to explain whether or not 512 is attainable!
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512 is attainable when x=y/2=3z=12/6. I don't think this result needs to be explained, because it is a standard result of the AM-GM inequality.
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It is obvius, but important, I think. It is sufficient to say "Equality occurs when x=y/2=3z=12/6".
It took more than an hour for me to solve this problem because I have to learn the method of Lagrange multipliers first. I've never heard a such thing as Lagrange multipliers before. Nice problem since I get a new kind of knowledge.
Exactly the same situation as mine
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I had the idea of.using AM-GM inequality but I dont seem to have a good grasp of it yet. :-/
Using the method of Lagrange multipliers :
Note that the values of ( x , z , y ) that give the maximum of 2 3 x y 4 z also give the maximum of x y 4 z and of ln ( x y 4 z ) = ln ( x ) + 4 ln ( y ) + ln ( z ) since x , y , z are all positive.
We set up the Lagrangian
L = ln ( x ) + 4 ln ( y ) + ln ( z ) − λ ( x + 2 y + 3 z − 1 2 )
Now take all partial derivative and set to zero.
∂ x ∂ L = x 1 − λ = 0 ⟺ x = λ 1
∂ y ∂ L = y 4 − 2 λ = 0 ⟺ 2 y = λ 4
∂ z ∂ L = z 1 − 3 λ = 0 ⟺ 3 z = λ 1
∂ λ ∂ L = − x − 2 y − 3 z + 1 2 = 0
Plug into the last partial derivative to get value of λ and we find ( x , z , y ) = ( 2 , 4 , 2 / 3 ) .
Evaluating 2 3 x y 4 z at those values gives 5 1 2 .
As x y z are positive reals we can apply AM-GM inequality. x +4 (y/2)+3z>(3/16 xy^4z)^1/6 On solving we get the required value <= 512. Hence its maximum value is 512.
Whenever I see questions like this, I start out by trying the AM-GM inequality. Since we want a product of x , y 4 and z on the Geometric Mean side, we rewrite the given equation to include 4 terms involving y .
x + 2 y + 3 z = x + 2 y + 2 y + 2 y + 2 y + 3 z = 1 2
Now, taking AM-GM, we get:
6 x + 2 y + 2 y + 2 y + 2 y + 3 z ≥ ( x ∗ 2 y ∗ 2 y ∗ 2 y ∗ 2 y ∗ 3 z ) 6 1
6 1 2 ≥ ( 1 6 3 x y 4 z ) 6 1
2 6 ≥ 1 6 3 x y 4 z
8 × 2 6 ≥ 8 × ( 1 6 3 x y 4 z )
5 1 2 ≥ 2 3 x y 4 z
Hence, the maximum value of 2 3 x y 4 z is 5 1 2
The first linear equation is equal to x + 2 1 y + 2 1 y + 2 1 y + 2 1 y + 3 z = 1 2 . By AM-GM inequality, 6 x + 2 1 y + 2 1 y + 2 1 y + 2 1 y + 3 z is greater than or equal to 6 1 6 3 x y 4 z (the product of the six terms on the numerator on the left hand side.) From this equation it can be seen that the largest possible value is 8 × 2 6 = 5 1 2 which can be achieved when x = 2 y = 3 z ( x = 2 , y = 4 , z = 3 2 )
Sorry for the error: "on the left hand side" should be referring to the second expression (the one with the 6 in the denominator)
if positive real nos are given ,then atleast one times we should think about the A.M>=G.M,let x,y/2,y/2,y/2,y/2,3z , there are six positive no and after the multiplication of this nos we are getting xy^4z factor.then here we can apply A.M>=G.M (x+y/2+y/2+y/2+y/2+3z)/6>=6th root of (x y/2 y/2 y/2 y/2*3z).After solving this we can get the ANS.And the ans is 512.
Y cannot be 5 as the denominator is 2. therefore y has to be 4.taking z to be divisible by 3, z=1/3=.>x=3 and the product is 192. let z=2/3 and x=2 and the product is 512. Lagrangian approach is methodical but I took the intuitive route.
x + 2 y + z can be written as
x + ( 1 / 2 ) y + ( 1 / 2 ) y + ( 1 / 2 ) y + ( 1 / 2 ) y + 3 z
By AM - GM Inequality, we have
x + ( 1 / 2 ) y + ( 1 / 2 ) y + ( 1 / 2 ) y + ( 1 / 2 ) y + 3 z ≥ 6 6 1 6 3 x y 4 z
But x + 2 y + z = x + ( 1 / 2 ) y + ( 1 / 2 ) y + ( 1 / 2 ) y + ( 1 / 2 ) y + 3 z = 1 2 ; hence
6 6 1 6 3 x y 4 z ≤ 1 2
or
6 1 6 3 x y 4 z ≤ 2
It follows that
2 3 x y 4 z ≤ 2 9
Which means that the maximum value of 2 3 x y 4 z must be 2 9 or 5 1 2
Split 2y into y/2,+y/2+y/2+y/2....now apply am>gm to 6 quantities which also include x and 3z
first of all our focus goes to the "Largest possible value", hence we think of the AM>=GM concept. Now, to get the desired 3/2 x y^4 z we break 2y as y/2 + y/2 + y/2 + y/2 after which we will apply the AM>= GM for x, the broken y's and 3z therefore, we have 6 x + y / 2 + y / 2 + y / 2 + y / 2 + 3 z = (3/16 x y^4 z)^1/6) we know that the LHS =12. Hence on solving we get 3/2 x y 4 z <=512 Hence the answer 5 1 2
x+2y+3z=12= (x+y/2+y/2+y/2+y/2+3z)..... <1> using AM>OR=GM in <1>, (x+y/2+y/2+y/2+y/2+3z)/6 >or= (x* y^4/16 3z)^1/6 2^6 >or= x (y^4)/16 3z 1024/3 >or= x y^4 z therefore, 3/2(x y^4 z) <or= (3/2) (1024/3) 3/2(x* y^4 *z) <or= 512
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By the arithmetic-geometric mean inequality, 6 2 x + y + y + y + y + 6 z ≥ ( 2 x y 4 6 z ) 6 1 Plugging in the expression x + 2 y + 3 z = 1 2 , we get 6 2 4 = 4 ≥ ( 2 x y 4 6 z ) 6 1 Raising each side to the 6 t h power yields 4 6 = 2 1 2 ≥ 2 x y 4 6 z or 3 2 1 0 ≥ x y 4 z Thus 2 3 x y 4 z ≤ 2 3 ⋅ 3 2 1 0 = 2 9 = 5 1 2 However, we must check that this value can be obtained. In the AM-GM inequality, equality is obtained if each term is equal. Thus we have 2 x = y = 6 z . Plugging this into the original equation gives 2 y + 2 y + 2 y = 1 2 ⇒ y = 4 ⇒ ( x , y , z ) = ( 2 , 4 , 3 2 ) Now we have 2 3 x y 4 z = 2 3 ( 2 ) ( 4 ) 4 ( 3 2 ) = 2 9 So this value can be obtained, and 5 1 2 is our answer.