If we mistakenly add numerator and denominators, we would think:
a 1 + b 1 = a + b 2 .
How many ordered pairs ( a . b ) in the interval − 1 0 ≤ a , b ≤ 1 0 such that they satisfy the equation above.
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Can we solve this problem via AM-HM too? How?
Damn. I missed that. Easy problem.
Btw, I am also thinking of a Mistakes give rise to a problem. Hell lot of Co-incidence, ain't it? :P @Nihar Mahajan
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Same method but I thought 0,0 to be a orders pair 😞
Well many people are getting inspired by it now a days. Waiting for yours ;)
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Y don't we consider 0,0
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@Sarvesh Dubey – Well , its a cursed solution. You cannot divide a number by 0 (do not ask why because no one is able to define it)
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@Nihar Mahajan – Ah!! My observational skill are too weak😞😞
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@Sarvesh Dubey – I think "cross checking" might be better than observational.
@Sarvesh Dubey – @sarvesh dubey , We do not consider (0,0) to be valid, because then the equation would be undefined. i.e then the denominator in the Original equation will be Zero. And Any fraction having denominator 0 is undefined.
Hope this helps. :)
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@Mehul Arora – Thank you! I had the same doubt...but before posting it,I happened to read your explanation.Guess my ''Cross-checking" skills are equally weak ! :P
Haha, I'll will try to post it as soon as possible ;)
Great solution, i had the exact same thought process.
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Thanks for your compliment :)
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Good solutions are always upvoted
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@Rama Devi – Yeah , they must be upvoted. But the upvote must not be taken back after few minutes.
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@Nihar Mahajan – Was that a taunt? xD
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@Mehul Arora – It wasn't a taunt
@Mehul Arora – May be ;) .
@Nihar Mahajan – What.........................................
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@Rama Devi – @Rama Devi Don't mind us talking. It's our unique way of talking :)
thanks a lot
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if a=b=1 then 1/1+1/1=2/2 so you get to a contradiction. 1+1=1 is completely wrong
sorry replied on the wrong one
why nt a=b=1?? and a=b=-1?
This is exactly how I did it Nihar . I am proud :-) .
Doesn't 1 work.
superb solution
This problem can easily be solved using the AM-HM Inequality:
A M = 2 a + b
H M = a + b 2 a b
H M ≤ A M ⟹ a + b 2 a b ≤ 2 a + b
a + b 2 a b 1 ≥ 2 a + b 1 ⟹ 2 a b a + b ≥ a + b 2
2 1 ( a 1 + b 1 ) ≥ a + b 2
We now must break into cases. Let us start by saying that neither a nor b can be 0 as this would make the fractions on the left side of the equation undefined.
If we restrict a and b to the positive, real numbers we have:
a 1 + b 1 > 2 1 ( a 1 + b 1 ) ≥ a + b 2
Meaning there are no solutions when a and b are greater than 0 . If a and b are both negative we have a similar inequality:
a 1 + b 1 < 2 1 ( a 1 + b 1 ) ≤ a + b 2
Our final case to check is if one variable is positive and the other is negative. WLOG we let a < 0 < b . If ∣ a ∣ < ∣ b ∣ , the LHS is negative, while the RHS is positive. Alternatively, if ∣ a ∣ < ∣ b ∣ , the LHS is positive and the RHS is negative.
Finally, we can't have a = − b because the RHS will be undefined, so we're done. These two terms cannot be equal any and all pairs of real numbers, therefore our answer is 0
Hello,
You cannot apply AM-HM if you do not know the variables are non-negative.
However, your AM-HM inequality still remains true due to the Trivial Inequality.
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You're right, AM-HM only applies to positive, real integers, that's why I broke it down into cases. If you notice, if you multiply both sides by − 1 , inequality switches and the negative distributes to the variables, and then you can apply the inequality to all negative, real numbers. I didn't apply AM-HM to the case where one variable is positive and the other is negative, I simply observed when ∣ a ∣ < ∣ b ∣ and a < 0 < b , the LHS must be negative and the RHS must be positive, and vice-versa when ∣ a ∣ > ∣ b ∣ . Does that clear things up?
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Oh sorry, I misunderstood what you were going for. Your solution is fine.
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@Daniel Liu – Haha it's all good, my actual solution was the same way you solved it, it's by far the best solution. I just posted mine as a response to the Challenge Master's note lol
The first inequality frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}> \frac{1}{2}\Big(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}[b}\Big)\geq\frac{2}{a+b} holds for a=b=1 (and for other positive values), so why did you said it doesn't have any solutions??
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You're exactly right that it holds. The problem is asking whether there are any variables that satisfy a 1 + b 1 = a + b 2 . This inequality shows that for all positive real numbers, a 1 + b 1 > 2 1 ( a 1 + b 1 ) ≥ a + b 2 , which, taking out the middle term, proves that a 1 + b 1 > a + b 2 , meaning that we have no solutions to our p r o b l e m in the positive real numbers. Sorry for the confusion!
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Thanks for the explanation. Now everything is perfectly clear.
me too and also (a+b)/(a^2+b^2)=2/(a+b) we get 2ab = a^2+b^2 which we get a=b=-1,1
multiply each side by a b ( a + b ) to obtain a 2 + b 2 = 0 which obviously have no solution in the range given.
This was exactly my thought process. But l got a = b = 0 and forgot about the fractions making this impossible. Good stuff though.
In first place, it is obvious that we should discard any pair that leads to a+b=0. Having it said, we can rewrite the left side of the equation using the properties of proportions (the proportion remains the same if we add the same term to both numerator and denominator) : 1/a = (1+b)/(a+b) and 1/b = (1+a)/(b+a)
Thus, the LHS becomes (a+b+2)/(a+b) = 1 + 2/(a+b)
Substituing in the original expression we get the absurd solution 1=0. Therefore, independently of the values of a and b, the equation has no solution (real one, at least)
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a 1 + b 1 = a + b 2 ⇒ a b a + b = a + b 2 ⇒ ( a + b ) 2 = 2 a b ⇒ a 2 + 2 a b + b 2 − 2 a b = 0 ⇒ a 2 + b 2 = 0
Since a 2 , b 2 ≥ 0 , the only possible solution is a = b = 0 .But if a = b = 0 , then the given expression becomes undefined. Hence , the possible ( a , b ) are 0 .