Let w 1 , . . , w 2 0 1 4 be the 2015th roots of unity other than 1. Without resorting to calculus, find − k = 1 ∑ 2 0 1 4 ( 1 + w k ) 2 1
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I don't think this is lengthy. Change of roots is the approach that I used to take before learning Calculus.
did a silly mistake and got the answer -2011.. Nice problem
Atlast solved 3rd attempt (phew)!!
Same method!!
One more thing to tell you that using calculus I couldn't get the answer because P ′ ′ ( − 1 ) was too lengthy to calculate than this method.
However, it was just hard to find what numberwe have added which is infact 2 1 in our solution.
I'm sorry. I resorted to calculus. Nice problem and a nicer solution! Could have never thought of such an approach! You should write a book.
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Thank you for your kind words. Actually, I have published a math text, "Linear Algebra with Applications", with some nice problems (I hope), and I'm writing a calculus text. Thanks for the encouragement!
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I will be looking forward to it. Well, where can I get your Algebra text? Is there a PDF available online? I couldn't get one.
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@Kartik Sharma – The publisher (Pearson) is hoping that there are no (free) online files available (although there probably are, "underground"). The text is now in its fifth edition; older editions are available at a reasonable price. There is also an Indian ("sub-continental") and a Chinese edition. The text is meant for an introductory (freshman or sophomore) level linear algebra course, and I doubt that a man of your sophistication could learn much from it ;)
Could you explain how to use calculus to solve this?
Let us first consider the following manipulation: ( 1 + e 2 i z ) 2 1 = ( e − i z ) 2 ( 1 + e 2 i z ) 2 e − 2 i z = ( e − i z + e i z ) 2 e − 2 i z = 2 c o s 2 ( z ) e − 2 i z = 4 1 [ c o s 2 ( z ) c o s ( 2 z ) − i c o s 2 ( z ) s i n ( 2 z ) ] = 4 1 ( 2 − sec 2 ( z ) − 2 i tan ( z ) ) = 4 1 ( 1 − tan 2 ( z ) − 2 i tan ( z ) ) Because the roots of unity can be written as w k = e 2 0 1 5 2 i π k , our question can be rephrased as the following sum, with z = 2 0 1 5 π k : 4 1 ( k = 1 ∑ 2 0 1 4 1 − k = 1 ∑ 2 0 1 4 tan 2 ( 2 0 1 5 π k ) − 2 i k = 1 ∑ 2 0 1 4 tan ( 2 0 1 5 π k ) ) Now, lets first look at the imaginary part of our problem, namely ∑ k = 1 2 0 1 4 tan ( 2 0 1 5 π k ) . . Using the identity tan ( 2 0 1 5 π k ) = − t a n ( π − 2 0 1 5 π k ) = − tan ( 2 0 1 5 π ( 2 0 1 5 − k ) ) ( 1 ) , we see that that ∑ k = 1 2 0 1 4 tan ( 2 0 1 5 π k ) = 0 , as the terms can be paired off to cancel out
The real part is 4 1 k = 1 ∑ 2 0 1 4 ( 1 − tan 2 ( 2 0 1 5 π k ) ) . Using ( 1 ) we have: 4 1 ( k = 1 ∑ 2 0 1 4 1 − 2 k = 1 ∑ 1 0 0 7 tan 2 ( 2 0 1 5 π k ) ) . Using the following identity, with m=1007: k = 1 ∑ m tan 2 ( 2 m + 1 π k ) = 2 m 2 + m , we finally have: 4 1 ( 2 0 1 4 − 2 ( 2 × 1 0 0 7 2 + 1 0 0 7 ) = − 1 0 0 7 2 = − 1 0 1 4 0 4 9
Arguably, the work of this problem is to prove the s u m tan 2 θ i identity.
One of the easiest ways to find that sum, is to find a polynomial whose roots are tan 2 θ i , by using the fact that the imaginary part of ( cos θ i + i sin θ i ) 2 0 1 5 = 0 .
It's good to see a different approach! (up-vote) Where did you get the formula ∑ k = 1 m tan 2 . . . from?
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I initially just took base cases with low values of m, in which both the upper limit of sum and the denominator in t a n 2 changed appropriately, and found that they have this recursive structure a n + 1 = a n + 7 + 4 ∗ ( n − 1 ) , a 1 = 3 , where a n corresponds with the sum k = 1 ∑ n t a n 2 ( 2 n + 1 π k ) and I solved for the recursion, hoping that the structure holds for higher values of m. Then to check, I googled it and confirmed my result with http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/217240/reference-for-a-tangent-squared-sum-identity (page doesn't really provide a proof though)
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Also, can you explain how to do this problem with calculus?
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@Benson Li – Write ∏ ( z − w k ) = z n − 1 , take the logarithm, differentiate twice, and plug in z = − 1 .
Wow, so you rediscovered this formula by yourself?! I'm usually being lazy and I'm looking these things up in Jolley's excellent "Summation of Series"...it's available online. His formulas are usually much more general.
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@Otto Bretscher – I mean, its not like I proved the recursive structure. That's why I said "hope it holds for higher values" :P.
I guess we have a proof of this formula now, based on this problem ;)
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Since we are not allowed to use calculus, we will present a somewhat lengthy algebraic solution.
We will at first include the root of unity w 2 0 1 5 = 1 . At the end we need to remember to add 1 / 4 to our answer.
Let's make a change of variables, z = 1 + w 1 . Since the w k are the solutions of w 2 0 1 5 = 1 , the corresponding z k will be the solutions of ( z 1 − z ) 2 0 1 5 = 1 or z 2 0 1 5 + ( z − 1 ) 2 0 1 5 = 0 or 2 z 2 0 1 5 − 2 0 1 5 z 2 0 1 4 + 2 2 0 1 5 × 2 0 1 4 z 2 0 1 3 − . . . = 0 . We seek ∑ k = 1 2 0 1 5 z k 2 = ( ∑ k = 1 2 0 1 5 z k ) 2 − 2 ∑ i < j z i z j = ( 2 2 0 1 5 ) 2 − 2 ( 4 2 0 1 5 × 2 0 1 4 ) = − 1 0 1 4 0 4 8 . 7 5 , by Viete. Changing the sign, as required, and adding the 1 / 4 stemming form w 2 0 1 5 = 1 , we find the final answer, 1 0 1 4 0 4 9 .