More fun in 2015, Part 6

Algebra Level 5

We are told that k = 0 n k m \displaystyle \sum_{k=0}^n k^m is a polynomial in n n of degree m + 1 m+1 .

For constants a , b a,b , we have k = 1 n k 2015 = a n 2016 + b n 2015 + \displaystyle \sum_{k=1}^n k^{2015} = a \cdot n^{2016} + b\cdot n^{2015} + \ldots .

Find b a \frac{b}{a} .


The answer is 1008.

This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and, finally, (c) loading the non-javascript version of this page . We're sorry about the hassle.

3 solutions

Pi Han Goh
May 22, 2015

I'm going straight for the generalization.

Claim : For any positive integer m m , the coefficients of a n a_n and b n b_n for the polynomial f m ( n ) = j = 1 n j m = a n n m + 1 + b n n m + \displaystyle f_m (n) = \sum_{j=1}^n j^m = a_n n^{m+1} + b_n n^{m} + \ldots is equals to 1 m + 1 \frac1{m+1} and 1 2 \frac12 respectively.

Proof : By method of differences, it's easy to see that the leading coefficient of the polynomial f m ( n ) = j = 1 n j m \displaystyle f_m (n) = \sum_{j=1}^n j^m equals to 1 m + 1 \frac1{m+1} .

Consider the telescoping sum and considering the first two terms of the binomial expansion:

k = 1 n [ ( k + 1 ) m + 1 k m + 1 ] = ( m + 1 1 ) k = 1 n k m + ( m + 1 2 ) k = 1 n k m 1 + ( n + 1 ) m + 1 1 ( ( m + 1 2 ) k = 1 n k m 1 + ) = ( m + 1 1 ) k = 1 n k m n m + 1 + n m ( ( m + 1 1 ) 1 m ( m + 1 2 ) ) + = ( m + 1 ) ( a n n m + 1 + b n n m + ) \begin{aligned} \displaystyle \sum_{k=1}^n \left [ (k+1)^{m+1} - k^{m+1} \right ] & = & \displaystyle \dbinom{m+1}{1} \sum_{k=1}^n k^m + \dbinom{m+1}{2} \sum_{k=1}^n k^{m-1} + \ldots \\ \displaystyle (n+1)^{m+1} - 1 - \left ( \dbinom{m+1}{2} \sum_{k=1}^n k^{m-1} + \ldots \right ) & = & \displaystyle \dbinom{m+1}{1} \sum_{k=1}^n k^m \\ n^{m+1} + n^m \left ( \dbinom{m+1}{1} - \frac 1m \cdot \dbinom{m+1}{2} \right) + \ldots & = & \displaystyle (m+1) ( a_n n^{m+1} + b_n n^{m} + \ldots ) \end{aligned}

Comparing the coefficients of n m n^m :

( m + 1 ) b n = ( m + 1 ) 1 m m ( m + 1 ) 2 b n = 1 2 (m+1)b_n = (m+1) - \frac1m \cdot \frac{ m(m+1)}2 \Rightarrow b_n = \frac12 \ \ \ \ \blacksquare

In this case, a = a 2015 = 1 2016 , b = b 2016 = 1 2 b a = 1008 a = a_{2015} = \frac1{2016}, b = b_{2016} = \frac12 \Rightarrow \frac ba = \boxed{1008} .

Note that using the same approach, we can work out the coefficients of n m 1 , n m 2 , , n n^{m-1}, n^{m-2}, \ldots , n for the polynomial f m ( n ) = j = 1 n j m \displaystyle f_m (n) = \sum_{j=1}^n j^m .

Moderator note:

Can you explain the following statement:

By method of differences, it's easy to see that the leading coefficient of the polynomial f m ( n ) = j = 1 n j m \displaystyle f_m (n) = \sum_{j=1}^n j^m equals to 1 m + 1 \frac1{m+1} .

Challenge Master: j = 1 n [ ( j + 1 ) m + 1 j m + 1 ] = ( m + 1 ) j = 1 n j m + \sum_{j=1}^n \left[ (j+1)^{m+1} - j^{m+1} \right] = (m+1) \sum_{j=1}^n j^m + \ldots

Denote A A as the desired answer, apply telescoping sum, LHS = ( n + 1 ) m + 1 1 , RHS = ( m + 1 ) A n m + 1 + \text{LHS} = (n+1)^{m+1} - 1, \text{ RHS} = (m+1)\cdot A \cdot n^{m+1} + \ldots .

Compare coefficients of leading coefficient: 1 = ( m + 1 ) A A = 1 m + 1 1= (m+1)A \Rightarrow A = \frac1{m+1} .

Alternative one could use Riemann Sum to obtain the answer. Because the polynomial f m ( n ) f_m(n) has degree m + 1 m+1 , consider the limit

lim n [ 1 n m + 1 j = 1 n j m ] = lim n ( 1 n [ ( 1 n ) m + ( 2 n ) m + + ( n n ) m ] ) = 0 1 x m d x = 1 m + 1 \begin{aligned} && \displaystyle \lim_{n\to\infty} \left [ \frac1{n^{m+1}} \cdot \sum_{j=1}^n j^m \right ] \\ &= & \displaystyle \lim_{n\to\infty} \left ( \frac 1n \left [ \left( \frac 1n \right)^m + \left( \frac 2n \right)^m + \ldots + \left( \frac nn \right)^m \right ] \right ) \\ &= & \displaystyle \int_0^1 x^m \, dx = \frac1{m+1} \end{aligned}

Pi Han Goh - 6 years ago

Log in to reply

Maybe the Challenge Master wants us to prove that f m ( n ) f_m(n) is a polynomial of degree m + 1 m+1 ...

Otto Bretscher - 6 years ago

Log in to reply

Awwh man, the question already states that. Isn't it obvious?

Pi Han Goh - 6 years ago

Log in to reply

@Pi Han Goh It's obvious to some of us ;) Not so obvious to most of my students, in my experience. I will post my solution with a formal proof by induction, for the sake of variety.

Otto Bretscher - 6 years ago

Ah, just a difference in terminology then. I would prefer to call it telescoping sum / summation induction instead.

This is my interpretation of Method of (finite) differences , and a proof would be to show that D m + 1 = m ! D_{m+1} = m! , which is not immediately obvious to me.

Calvin Lin Staff - 6 years ago

This is just perfect, like out of the pages of a (good) text book! Thank you! (+1)

When I do those in my classes (for m = 2 , 3 m=2,3 ) , I start with k m + 1 ( k 1 ) m + 1 k^{m+1}-(k-1)^{m+1} ... it's a tiny bit more straightforward.

Otto Bretscher - 6 years ago

Log in to reply

Your turn: For all positive integer q q and suppose that we adopt the convention that 0 0 = 1 0^0 = 1 , prove that

( n + 1 ) q q = j = 0 q 1 [ ( q 1 j ) q j ( 0 j + 1 j + 2 j + 3 j + + n j ) ] \displaystyle \frac{(n+1)^q}q = \sum_{j=0}^{q-1} \left [ \frac{ \dbinom{q-1}{j} }{q-j} \cdot \left(0^j + 1^j + 2^j + 3^j + \ldots + n^j \right ) \right ]

Pi Han Goh - 6 years ago

Log in to reply

Something isn't quite right with your equation... the RHS is undefined when j = q j=q ... but I can see that some very similar equation would indeed hold ;)

Otto Bretscher - 6 years ago

Log in to reply

@Otto Bretscher Haha, fixed. I didn't see what I typed. =D

Pi Han Goh - 6 years ago

Log in to reply

@Pi Han Goh It's evening in Amerika, and I finally got to your problem. It's not as bad as I feared... ;)

( n + 1 ) q = k = 0 n ( ( 1 + k ) q k q ) = k = 0 n j = 0 q 1 ( q j ) k j (n+1)^q=\sum_{k=0}^{n}\left((1+k)^q-k^q\right)=\sum_{k=0}^{n}\sum_{j=0}^{q-1}{q\choose{j}}k^j = k = 0 n j = 0 q 1 q q j ( q 1 j ) k j = \sum_{k=0}^{n}\sum_{j=0}^{q-1}\frac{q}{q-j}{q-1\choose{j}}k^j , which gives us what we want, after a bit of rearranging. It's clever how you make the "1" disappear with that 0 0 = 1 0^0=1 magic!

Otto Bretscher - 6 years ago

I will get back to you on that one when I have a moment of leisure this weekend... looks like some major acrobatics involving Bernoulli numbers... Maybe somebody else will jump in (I hope)...

Otto Bretscher - 6 years ago

Replying your second statement: Then I need to worry about the plus minus sign.

Pi Han Goh - 6 years ago
Otto Bretscher
May 23, 2015

The solution I had in mind is essentially the same as Pi Han's:

Let S m ( n ) = k = 1 n k m S_m(n)=\sum_{k=1}^{n}k^m . We will show by induction on m m that
(a) S m ( n ) S_m(n) is a polynomial of degree m + 1 m+1 ,
(b) the leading coefficient is 1 m + 1 \frac{1}{m+1} , and
(c) the second highest coefficient is 1 2 \frac{1}{2} .
We know these claims to be true for S 1 ( n ) = n ( n + 1 ) 2 S_1(n)=\frac{n(n+1)}{2} . Let's assume they hold for all integers < m <m .



Now n m + 1 = k = 1 n ( k m + 1 ( k 1 ) m + 1 ) n^{m+1}=\sum_{k=1}^{n}\left(k^{m+1}-(k-1)^{m+1}\right) = ( m + 1 ) k = 1 n k m ( m + 1 2 ) k = 1 n k m 1 + . . . =(m+1)\sum_{k=1}^{n}k^m-{{m+1}\choose{2}}\sum_{k=1}^{n}k^{m-1}+... = ( m + 1 ) S m ( n ) ( m + 1 2 ) S m 1 ( n ) + . . . =(m+1)S_m(n)-{{m+1}\choose{2}}S_{m-1}(n)+...

We know, by induction, that the later terms are polynomials of degree < m <m and the leading term of ( m + 1 2 ) S m 1 ( n ) {{m+1}\choose{2}}S_{m-1}(n) is m + 1 2 n m \frac{m+1}{2}n^m . Thus S m ( n ) = 1 m + 1 n m + 1 + 1 2 n m + . . . S_m(n)=\frac{1}{m+1}n^{m+1}+\frac{1}{2}n^m+... , proving our three claims.

Now b a = m + 1 2 = 1008 \frac{b}{a}=\frac{m+1}{2}=\boxed{1008}

Moderator note:

What is the other easy coefficient to deduce for these polynomials?

What is the interpretation of S m ( 1 ) S_m ( -1 ) ? For what m m do we have S m ( 1 ) = 0 S_m (-1) = 0 ?

Pi Han Goh - 6 years ago

The constant term is always 0 since S m ( 0 ) = k = 0 0 k m = 0 S_m(0)=\sum_{k=0}^{0}k^m=0 for all positive m m .

Also, S m ( 1 ) = 0 S_m(-1)=0 for all m m . We can show this by induction, using the formula ( n + 1 ) q = j = 0 q 1 ( q j ) S j ( n ) (n+1)^q=\sum_{j=0}^{q-1}{q\choose{j}}S_j(n) we came across in my discussions with Pi Han.

Otto Bretscher - 6 years ago

Log in to reply

The reason why I brought it up is that a good follow up question on the sum of powers is

Prove that n ( n + 1 ) 2 1 m + 2 m + n m \frac{ n (n+1)}{2} \mid 1^m + 2 ^m + \ldots n ^ m for all integers m m .

From your discussion, and applying the Remainder-Factor Theorem, we know that "as polynomials", n ( n + 1 ) S m n(n+1) \mid S_m . However, this doesn't tell us if as integers, n ( n + 1 ) S m ( n ) n(n+1) \mid S_m (n) , and in fact it doesn't (like in the case of m = 1 m=1 .

There are several discoveries to be made thinking of this as a polynomial sum VS as a binomial sum of powers, and working through the implications of the linkages.

Calvin Lin Staff - 6 years ago

Log in to reply

Wouldn't it be better to prove the stronger case? That is, prove that

1 4 n 2 ( n + 1 ) 2 \frac14 n^2 (n+1)^2 divides 1 2 m + 1 + 2 2 m + 1 + + n 2 m + 1 1^{2m+1} + 2^{2m+1} + \ldots + n^{2m+1}

And

1 6 n ( n + 1 ) ( 2 n + 1 ) \frac16 n(n+1)(2n+1) divides 1 2 m + 2 2 m + + n 2 m 1^{2m} + 2^{2m} + \ldots + n^{2m}

For any positive integer m m .

Pi Han Goh - 6 years ago
Jake Lai
Nov 13, 2015

The question becomes easy if one knows that k = 1 n k m \displaystyle \sum_{k=1}^n k^m is a polynomial in n ( n + 1 ) n(n+1) whenever m m is odd .

Also, since we are informed that it is of degree m + 1 m+1 in n n , we have that k = 1 n k 2015 \displaystyle \sum_{k=1}^n k^{2015} is a polynomial of degree 1008 in n ( n + 1 ) n(n+1) .

Proof :

Let k = 1 n k 2015 = c 1008 n 1008 ( n + 1 ) 1008 + c 1007 n 1007 ( n + 1 ) 1007 + \displaystyle \sum_{k=1}^n k^{2015} = c_{1008}n^{1008}(n+1)^{1008}+c_{1007}n^{1007}(n+1)^{1007}+\ldots , where { c i } \lbrace c_i \rbrace are constants. Expanding c 1007 n 1007 ( n + 1 ) 1007 c_{1007}n^{1007}(n+1)^{1007} , we only obtain powers of n n of at most 2014, which will contribute to neither a a nor b b . This is obviously true for c 1006 n 1006 ( n + 1 ) 1006 , c 1005 n 1005 ( n + 1 ) 1005 , c_{1006}n^{1006}(n+1)^{1006}, c_{1005}n^{1005}(n+1)^{1005}, et cetera. Hence, we only need to observe the expansion of c 1008 n 1008 ( n + 1 ) 1008 c_{1008}n^{1008}(n+1)^{1008} .

Using the binomial theorem,

c 1008 n 1008 ( n + 1 ) 1008 = c 1008 n 1008 [ i = 1 1008 ( 1008 i ) n i ] c_{1008}n^{1008}(n+1)^{1008} = c_{1008}n^{1008}\left[ \sum_{i=1}^{1008} \binom{1008}{i}n^i \right]

The relevant terms are then

c 1008 n 1008 [ ( 1008 1008 ) n 1008 ] = c 1008 n 2016 = a n 2016 c_{1008}n^{1008} \left[ \binom{1008}{1008}n^{1008} \right] = c_{1008}n^{2016} = an^{2016}

and

c 1008 n 1008 [ ( 1008 1007 ) n 1007 ] = 1008 c 1008 n 2015 = b n 2015 c_{1008}n^{1008} \left[ \binom{1008}{1007}n^{1007} \right] = 1008c_{1008}n^{2015} = bn^{2015}

By comparing coefficients, we have a = c 1008 a = c_{1008} and b = 1008 c 1008 b = 1008c_{1008} . As a result, we have b a = 1008 c 1008 c 1008 = 1008 \displaystyle \frac{b}{a} = \frac{1008c_{1008}}{c_{1008}} = \boxed{1008} . (This extends easily to all m m odd.)

Moderator note:

Great fact to use. I've learnt something today!

@Calvin Lin According to Wikipedia, the claim is correct, and it lists the sum of fifth powers as 4 a 3 a 2 3 \dfrac{4a^3-a^2}{3} , where a = n ( n + 1 ) 2 a = \dfrac{n(n+1)}{2} .

Jake Lai - 5 years, 6 months ago

Log in to reply

Oh yes, 2 n 2 + 2 n 1 2n^2 + 2n - 1 is a polynomial in n 2 + n n^2 + n . haha.

I am amazed that this is true, and don't see why that's the case. Yes, I've seen the explicit expressions, which are so ugly.

This looks great then. Let me update the CM note.

Calvin Lin Staff - 5 years, 6 months ago

0 pending reports

×

Problem Loading...

Note Loading...

Set Loading...