We are told that k = 0 ∑ n k m is a polynomial in n of degree m + 1 .
For constants a , b , we have k = 1 ∑ n k 2 0 1 5 = a ⋅ n 2 0 1 6 + b ⋅ n 2 0 1 5 + … .
Find a b .
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Can you explain the following statement:
By method of differences, it's easy to see that the leading coefficient of the polynomial f m ( n ) = j = 1 ∑ n j m equals to m + 1 1 .
Challenge Master: j = 1 ∑ n [ ( j + 1 ) m + 1 − j m + 1 ] = ( m + 1 ) j = 1 ∑ n j m + …
Denote A as the desired answer, apply telescoping sum, LHS = ( n + 1 ) m + 1 − 1 , RHS = ( m + 1 ) ⋅ A ⋅ n m + 1 + … .
Compare coefficients of leading coefficient: 1 = ( m + 1 ) A ⇒ A = m + 1 1 .
Alternative one could use Riemann Sum to obtain the answer. Because the polynomial f m ( n ) has degree m + 1 , consider the limit
= = n → ∞ lim [ n m + 1 1 ⋅ j = 1 ∑ n j m ] n → ∞ lim ( n 1 [ ( n 1 ) m + ( n 2 ) m + … + ( n n ) m ] ) ∫ 0 1 x m d x = m + 1 1
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Maybe the Challenge Master wants us to prove that f m ( n ) is a polynomial of degree m + 1 ...
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Awwh man, the question already states that. Isn't it obvious?
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@Pi Han Goh – It's obvious to some of us ;) Not so obvious to most of my students, in my experience. I will post my solution with a formal proof by induction, for the sake of variety.
Ah, just a difference in terminology then. I would prefer to call it telescoping sum / summation induction instead.
This is my interpretation of Method of (finite) differences , and a proof would be to show that D m + 1 = m ! , which is not immediately obvious to me.
This is just perfect, like out of the pages of a (good) text book! Thank you! (+1)
When I do those in my classes (for m = 2 , 3 ) , I start with k m + 1 − ( k − 1 ) m + 1 ... it's a tiny bit more straightforward.
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Your turn: For all positive integer q and suppose that we adopt the convention that 0 0 = 1 , prove that
q ( n + 1 ) q = j = 0 ∑ q − 1 ⎣ ⎢ ⎢ ⎡ q − j ( j q − 1 ) ⋅ ( 0 j + 1 j + 2 j + 3 j + … + n j ) ⎦ ⎥ ⎥ ⎤
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Something isn't quite right with your equation... the RHS is undefined when j = q ... but I can see that some very similar equation would indeed hold ;)
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@Otto Bretscher – Haha, fixed. I didn't see what I typed. =D
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@Pi Han Goh – It's evening in Amerika, and I finally got to your problem. It's not as bad as I feared... ;)
( n + 1 ) q = ∑ k = 0 n ( ( 1 + k ) q − k q ) = ∑ k = 0 n ∑ j = 0 q − 1 ( j q ) k j = ∑ k = 0 n ∑ j = 0 q − 1 q − j q ( j q − 1 ) k j , which gives us what we want, after a bit of rearranging. It's clever how you make the "1" disappear with that 0 0 = 1 magic!
I will get back to you on that one when I have a moment of leisure this weekend... looks like some major acrobatics involving Bernoulli numbers... Maybe somebody else will jump in (I hope)...
Replying your second statement: Then I need to worry about the plus minus sign.
The solution I had in mind is essentially the same as Pi Han's:
Let
S
m
(
n
)
=
∑
k
=
1
n
k
m
. We will show by induction on
m
that
(a)
S
m
(
n
)
is a polynomial of degree
m
+
1
,
(b) the leading coefficient is
m
+
1
1
, and
(c) the second highest coefficient is
2
1
.
We know these claims to be true for
S
1
(
n
)
=
2
n
(
n
+
1
)
. Let's assume they hold for all integers
<
m
.
Now n m + 1 = ∑ k = 1 n ( k m + 1 − ( k − 1 ) m + 1 ) = ( m + 1 ) ∑ k = 1 n k m − ( 2 m + 1 ) ∑ k = 1 n k m − 1 + . . . = ( m + 1 ) S m ( n ) − ( 2 m + 1 ) S m − 1 ( n ) + . . .
We know, by induction, that the later terms are polynomials of degree < m and the leading term of ( 2 m + 1 ) S m − 1 ( n ) is 2 m + 1 n m . Thus S m ( n ) = m + 1 1 n m + 1 + 2 1 n m + . . . , proving our three claims.
Now a b = 2 m + 1 = 1 0 0 8
What is the other easy coefficient to deduce for these polynomials?
What is the interpretation of S m ( − 1 ) ? For what m do we have S m ( − 1 ) = 0 ?
The constant term is always 0 since S m ( 0 ) = ∑ k = 0 0 k m = 0 for all positive m .
Also, S m ( − 1 ) = 0 for all m . We can show this by induction, using the formula ( n + 1 ) q = ∑ j = 0 q − 1 ( j q ) S j ( n ) we came across in my discussions with Pi Han.
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The reason why I brought it up is that a good follow up question on the sum of powers is
Prove that 2 n ( n + 1 ) ∣ 1 m + 2 m + … n m for all integers m .
From your discussion, and applying the Remainder-Factor Theorem, we know that "as polynomials", n ( n + 1 ) ∣ S m . However, this doesn't tell us if as integers, n ( n + 1 ) ∣ S m ( n ) , and in fact it doesn't (like in the case of m = 1 .
There are several discoveries to be made thinking of this as a polynomial sum VS as a binomial sum of powers, and working through the implications of the linkages.
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Wouldn't it be better to prove the stronger case? That is, prove that
4 1 n 2 ( n + 1 ) 2 divides 1 2 m + 1 + 2 2 m + 1 + … + n 2 m + 1
And
6 1 n ( n + 1 ) ( 2 n + 1 ) divides 1 2 m + 2 2 m + … + n 2 m
For any positive integer m .
The question becomes easy if one knows that k = 1 ∑ n k m is a polynomial in n ( n + 1 ) whenever m is odd .
Also, since we are informed that it is of degree m + 1 in n , we have that k = 1 ∑ n k 2 0 1 5 is a polynomial of degree 1008 in n ( n + 1 ) .
Proof :
Let k = 1 ∑ n k 2 0 1 5 = c 1 0 0 8 n 1 0 0 8 ( n + 1 ) 1 0 0 8 + c 1 0 0 7 n 1 0 0 7 ( n + 1 ) 1 0 0 7 + … , where { c i } are constants. Expanding c 1 0 0 7 n 1 0 0 7 ( n + 1 ) 1 0 0 7 , we only obtain powers of n of at most 2014, which will contribute to neither a nor b . This is obviously true for c 1 0 0 6 n 1 0 0 6 ( n + 1 ) 1 0 0 6 , c 1 0 0 5 n 1 0 0 5 ( n + 1 ) 1 0 0 5 , et cetera. Hence, we only need to observe the expansion of c 1 0 0 8 n 1 0 0 8 ( n + 1 ) 1 0 0 8 .
Using the binomial theorem,
c 1 0 0 8 n 1 0 0 8 ( n + 1 ) 1 0 0 8 = c 1 0 0 8 n 1 0 0 8 [ i = 1 ∑ 1 0 0 8 ( i 1 0 0 8 ) n i ]
The relevant terms are then
c 1 0 0 8 n 1 0 0 8 [ ( 1 0 0 8 1 0 0 8 ) n 1 0 0 8 ] = c 1 0 0 8 n 2 0 1 6 = a n 2 0 1 6
and
c 1 0 0 8 n 1 0 0 8 [ ( 1 0 0 7 1 0 0 8 ) n 1 0 0 7 ] = 1 0 0 8 c 1 0 0 8 n 2 0 1 5 = b n 2 0 1 5
By comparing coefficients, we have a = c 1 0 0 8 and b = 1 0 0 8 c 1 0 0 8 . As a result, we have a b = c 1 0 0 8 1 0 0 8 c 1 0 0 8 = 1 0 0 8 . (This extends easily to all m odd.)
Great fact to use. I've learnt something today!
@Calvin Lin According to Wikipedia, the claim is correct, and it lists the sum of fifth powers as 3 4 a 3 − a 2 , where a = 2 n ( n + 1 ) .
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Oh yes, 2 n 2 + 2 n − 1 is a polynomial in n 2 + n . haha.
I am amazed that this is true, and don't see why that's the case. Yes, I've seen the explicit expressions, which are so ugly.
This looks great then. Let me update the CM note.
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I'm going straight for the generalization.
Claim : For any positive integer m , the coefficients of a n and b n for the polynomial f m ( n ) = j = 1 ∑ n j m = a n n m + 1 + b n n m + … is equals to m + 1 1 and 2 1 respectively.
Proof : By method of differences, it's easy to see that the leading coefficient of the polynomial f m ( n ) = j = 1 ∑ n j m equals to m + 1 1 .
Consider the telescoping sum and considering the first two terms of the binomial expansion:
k = 1 ∑ n [ ( k + 1 ) m + 1 − k m + 1 ] ( n + 1 ) m + 1 − 1 − ( ( 2 m + 1 ) k = 1 ∑ n k m − 1 + … ) n m + 1 + n m ( ( 1 m + 1 ) − m 1 ⋅ ( 2 m + 1 ) ) + … = = = ( 1 m + 1 ) k = 1 ∑ n k m + ( 2 m + 1 ) k = 1 ∑ n k m − 1 + … ( 1 m + 1 ) k = 1 ∑ n k m ( m + 1 ) ( a n n m + 1 + b n n m + … )
Comparing the coefficients of n m :
( m + 1 ) b n = ( m + 1 ) − m 1 ⋅ 2 m ( m + 1 ) ⇒ b n = 2 1 ■
In this case, a = a 2 0 1 5 = 2 0 1 6 1 , b = b 2 0 1 6 = 2 1 ⇒ a b = 1 0 0 8 .
Note that using the same approach, we can work out the coefficients of n m − 1 , n m − 2 , … , n for the polynomial f m ( n ) = j = 1 ∑ n j m .