a a a ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ = b
Find the largest real number b such that the above equation has a positive real solution a . Approximate b to four significant digits.
If you come to the conclusion that no such value of b exists, enter 666.
Clarification : The value of the infinite power tower a a a ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ is defined as the limit of the sequence x 0 = a , x n + 1 = a x n .
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The first time I ever saw this problem (a few years ago), I fell into the trap of thinking, "Oh, it's just x y = y , and ( n n ) n = n , so there is no upper bound!"
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You are not alone... it looks like 152 people fell into that trap here . BTW: That wrong answer should really be changed... it seems to confuse people further.
I'm following you up to last sentence, but I don't quite see how you conclude that there exists an a as required for b = e .
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I only show that the supremum (as opposed to the maximum) of the limit b is e , i.e. anything less than e is achievavble.
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But the problem asks for the largest b that is achievable.
To complete the proof, let us show that e = a a a . . . for a = e 1 / e ; this proof goes back to Euler. Now the line y = x is tangent to the graph of f ( x ) = a x = e x / e at the point ( e , e ) ; to verify this, note that f ( e ) = e and f ′ ( e ) = 1 . The sequence given by x 0 = a and x n + 1 = a x n = f ( x n ) is increasing and bounded by e , so that it must converge to e as claimed.
If a > e 1 / e , then the function f ( x ) = a x will no longer have an equilibrium point where f ( x ) = x , so that the power tower a a a . . . fails to converge. Thus b = e is the largest "achievable" value.
To SEE what's going on here, take a look at Mr @Michael Mendrin 's last graph and draw a cobweb starting at a = e 1 / e ≈ 1 . 4 4 ... the cobweb will zigzag towards the point ( e , e )
e
is where
y
y
1
has the maximum value. See graphic.
Note that d y d ( y y 1 ) = y y 1 − 2 ( 1 − L o g ( y ) )
That is certainly true... but how does this relate to our problem? I know that you are fond of brief solutions (as am I), but I think we need to say just a little more.
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Here's how it's related
y = x x x . . . = x y
which leads to the inverse function of the power tower y y 1 , and so we plot it in the other way, and see that it arcs back after reaching the maximum value of e
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But we also need to worry about convergence: For a given b , does the power tower with a = b 1 / b actually converge to b ?
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@Otto Bretscher – Ten Spaces
Edit: Ten spaces is what's required for Brilliant.org to "finish a post". I'll be back with a graphic after I've had my pizza.
Okay, first let's look at this graphic
The red curve is the function y = a x . The green line is y = x . Starting at an arbitrary x = a (thick vertical blue), we reiterate (follow the blue lines), which effectively "builds the tower". This iteration finally ends at the black lines where a x = x . The variable a can only be increased until the line y = x is tangent to a x like as per this graphic
which means that the slope at the critical point is 1 , or
d x d a x = a x L o g ( a ) = 1
but we know that a = x x 1 , so that we end up with
( x x 1 ) x L o g ( x x 1 ) = 1
and from here it's a short step to showing that x = e , which is the answer.
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@Michael Mendrin – bon appetit
@Michael Mendrin – Yes, that makes sense! Thanks!
If a a a . . . = b
then − ln a W ( − ln a ) = b
by identity, W ( − ln a ) e W ( − ln a ) W ( − ln a ) = b
e W ( − ln a ) 1 = b
e − W ( − ln a ) = b
W ( − ln a ) = − ln b
− ln a = − ln b e − ln b
ln a = b ln b
So, a = b b
We want a to the maximum so b b has to be maximum; and for a function to be maximum (or minimum), its derivative has to be 0. The derivative of b b is − b b 1 − 2 ( ln b − 1 )
So, − b b 1 − 2 ( ln b − 1 ) = 0
that means either − b b 1 − 2 = 0 or ln b − 1 = 0
The first one is not possible, even if b is 0, so
If ln b − 1 = 0
then ln b = 1
thus b = e
Thus the maximum is e
You need to show that e = a a a . . . for a = e 1 / e . You only show "necessity", not sufficiency, to use Abhishek's terminology.
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why not proof by induction?
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Euler's proof (written up in my comment to Abhishek's partial solution) is indeed by induction: If x n < e then x n + 1 < e .
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@Otto Bretscher – if not 2 . 7 2 . 7 1 ≈ 1 . 4 4 4 6 5 6 and 2 . 8 2 . 8 1 ≈ 1 . 4 4 4 4 3 9
thus 2 . 7 2 . 7 1 > 2 . 8 2 . 8 1 ????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????
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@Joel Yip – As I said before: The key point of this problem is to show that e = a a a . . . for a = e 1 / e ; we need to prove that the power tower converges to e . The rest is trivial
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@Otto Bretscher – then i'll try.
− ln e e 1 W ( − ln e e 1 )
− ln e e 1 W ( − e 1 )
− ln e e 1 − 1
− e 1 − 1
and that is e
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@Joel Yip – That only shows that e is a fixed point... but you have to show that the sequence defined by the power tower converges to e .
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@Otto Bretscher – sir why is that necessary when you are showing it converges to e?and i dont understand how @Michael Mendrin shows that the sequence converges to e? pls clarify
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@Mardokay Mosazghi – Mr @Michael Mendrin shows it graphically: In his last graph, you can draw a cobweb between the green line y = x and the red graph of y = a x , where a = e 1 / e ... this cobweb zigzags towards the point ( e , e ) . The cobweb is a neat way to visualize the iteration.
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@Otto Bretscher – thx i wasn't aware of the cobweb representation, anyways how would you show the convergence with out a graphical approach any tips?
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@Mardokay Mosazghi – I'm showing it as a comment to Abhishek's solution... it's an old proof due to Euler. Abhishek shows the convergence for b < e , but not for e itself.
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[Necessity] Fix a number a > 1 . Let us first characterize a necessary condition for the number a , so that the limit a a ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ exists in R .
If the limit does exist, then there must exist a real number x , such that the following equation has a real solution a x = x Now, consider minimizing the convex function f ( x ) = a x − x , x ∈ R . At the minima x ∗ , the first derivative must vanish, thus we must have a x ∗ ln ( a ) = 1 Hence, x ∗ = − ln ( a ) ln ( ln ( a ) ) Hence the minimum value of f ( x ) is a x ∗ − x ∗ = ln ( a ) 1 + ln ( ln ( a ) ) . For the equation a x = x to have a real solution, this minimum value must be non-positive. Thus, the limit above does not exist if 1 + ln ( ln ( a ) ) > 0 i.e., a > e 1 / e Hence, for the limit to exist, we must have a ≤ e 1 / e .
[Sufficiency] Now, we show that for any 1 < b < e , the mapping g : [ 1 , b ] → [ 1 , b ] , given by g ( x ) = b x / b , is a well-defined contraction mapping. This can be directly verified by taking derivative of g ( x ) and showing that it is strictly less than unity in the compact interval [ 1 , b ] .
Taking a = b 1 / b , it follows by Banach's fixed point theorem , that the iteration g m ( a ) = a g m − 1 ( a ) converges, since the point a belongs to the domain (i.e., 1 ≤ a = b 1 / b ≤ b ). Thus the supremum of all numbers a for which the limit exists is e 1 / e with the corresponding supremum value of the limit being e .