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same method!
We observe that the function f ( n ) = ∑ d ∣ n ϕ ( d ) is multiplicative, being the Dirichlet convolution of ϕ and the constant function 1. Now we see that f ( p k ) = 1 + ( p − 1 ) + ( p 2 − p ) + . . . + ( p k − p k − 1 ) = p k for primes p , so that f ( n ) = ∑ d ∣ n ϕ ( d ) = n for all n . Thus f ( 2 0 1 6 2 ) = 2 0 1 6 2 = 4 0 6 4 2 5 6
Just for now
d ∣ y ∑ ϕ ( d ) = y
There's an algebraic method, but you can solve this strictly by thinking about what ϕ ( x ) represents. (Hint: ϕ ( x ) represents the number of integers < x which are coprime with x )
We discussed this issue here , and several good solutions were submitted.
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Oh, wow, I never saw that problem. I think I'm gonna delete this problem since it's not original.
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I think it's good to remind people of this important stuff... I'm sure others have missed it too.
Do not delete , may I suggest you an update for the question? ;)
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@A Former Brilliant Member – Sure, what do you have in mind?
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@Trevor Arashiro – Do some awesome combinations with Mobius , von mangoldt , liouville etc. ;)
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The function is multiplicative, therefore,
d ∣ 2 0 1 6 2 ∑ ϕ ( d ) = d ∣ 2 1 0 3 4 7 2 ∑ ϕ ( d ) = d ∣ 2 1 0 ∑ ϕ ( d ) d ∣ 3 4 ∑ ϕ ( d ) d ∣ 7 2 ∑ ϕ ( d ) = ( 1 + 1 + 2 + 4 + 8 + 1 6 + 3 2 + 6 4 + 1 2 8 + 2 5 6 + 5 1 2 ) ( 1 + 2 + 6 + 1 8 + 5 4 ) ( 1 + 6 + 4 2 ) = 1 0 2 4 × 8 1 × 4 9 = 4 0 6 4 2 5 6