Moving particle

A particle starts at ( 0 , 0 ) (0,0) in a coordinate plane. Every turn it has an equal chance of moving to the next adjacent integer point diagonally ( ( 1 , 1 ) ( 1 , 1 ) ( 1 , 1 ) ( 1 , 1 ) (1,1) (1,-1) (-1,1) (-1,-1) on the first turn).

What is the probability (in percentage) of the particle ever returning to the origin?


The answer is 100.

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1 solution

Mark Hennings
Jun 24, 2020

This is just the two-dimensional simple random walk, viewed at a 4 5 45^\circ angle. It is a well-known result that the n n -dimensional simple random walk is recurrent for n = 1 , 2 n= 1,2 , and transient for n 3 n \ge 3 . Thus this random walk is recurrent, which makes the probability of eventual return to the origin equal to 1 = 100 % 1 = \boxed{100}\% .

Here is a detailed proof in this case.

Let X n X_n be the random variable that is equal to 1 1 if the particle has returned to the origin after n n steps, and 0 0 otherwise (note that X n = 0 X_n = 0 if n n is odd. If p n p_n the the probability of returning to the origin after n n steps, then p n = E [ X n ] p_n = E[X_n] . If X X is the random variable equal to the total number of returns to the origin, then X = n = 1 X n X = \sum_{n=1}^\infty X_n , and hence E [ X ] = n = 1 E [ X n ] = n = 1 p n E[X] \; = \; \sum_{n=1}^\infty E[X_n] \; = \; \sum_{n=1}^\infty p_n Suppose that ρ \rho is the probability of ever returning to the origin. Then P [ X k ] = ρ k P[X \ge k] \; = \; \rho^k for all k 1 k \ge 1 , and hence we deduce that E [ X ] = k = 1 P [ X k ] = { ρ 1 ρ ρ < 1 ρ = 1 E[X] \; = \; \sum_{k=1}^\infty P[X \ge k] \; = \; \left\{ \begin{array}{lll} \frac{\rho}{1-\rho} & \hspace{1cm} & \rho < 1 \\ \infty & & \rho = 1 \end{array}\right. At each step of this random walk, the particle moves either left or right one step, and at the same times moves either up or down one step. Moves of left and right are equally likely, as are moves of up and down. Moreover, the left and right moves are independent of the up and down moves. Thus, in order to return to the origin after 2 n 2n moves, there have to be n n left and n n right moves, and n n up and n n down moves. Thus p 2 n = ( 1 2 2 n ( 2 n n ) ) 2 n 1 p_{2n} \; = \; \left(\frac{1}{2^{2n}}\binom{2n}{n}\right)^2 \hspace{2cm} n \ge 1 Stirling's approximation tells us that p 2 n 1 π n n p_{2n} \sim \frac{1}{\pi n} \hspace{2cm} n \to \infty and hence that E [ X ] = n = 1 p n = E[X] \; = \; \sum_{n=1}^\infty p_n \; = \; \infty which implies that ρ = 1 = 100 % \rho = 1 = \boxed{100}\% .

@ Mark Hennings , we really liked your comment, and have converted it into a solution.

Brilliant Mathematics Staff - 11 months, 3 weeks ago

Why is P [ X k ] = ρ k P[X \geq k] = \rho ^k ? Why not P [ X = k ] = ρ k P[X = k] = \rho ^k ?

Atomsky Jahid - 11 months, 2 weeks ago

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ρ k \rho^k just states that the origin is reached k k times, but would allow for more returns as well. The probability of exactly k k returns would be ρ k ( 1 ρ ) \rho^k(1-\rho) , so that there were k k returns, then no more.

Mark Hennings - 11 months, 2 weeks ago

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What is the justification for E [ X ] = k = 1 ρ k E[X] = \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \rho ^k ?

Atomsky Jahid - 11 months, 2 weeks ago

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@Atomsky Jahid It is a standard result that E [ X ] = k 1 P [ X k ] E[X]=\sum_{k\ge1}P[X\ge k]

Mark Hennings - 11 months, 2 weeks ago

Can you explain why the simple random walk is transient for n>2 ?

Prasath M - 9 months, 3 weeks ago

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