Define a cool number as a positive integer n ≥ 2 that satisfies the following:
For all pairs of factors a , b of n satisfying g cd ( a , b ) = 1 , then a + b − 1 is also a factor of n .
Find the number of cool numbers under 1000.
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Salute to you!!
I gave up after concluding that there must be 168 solutions at least i.e. all the primes; I could not even think of any way to solve (and to be very honest, I am trying very hard to understand your solution too :P).
By the way, I have a question. Are you really 14 years of age?
Edit: 168 primes + 8 powers of 2 + 5 powers of 3 + 3 powers of 5 + 2 powers of 7+ 1 power of 11 + 1 power of 13 + 1 power of 17,19,23,29,31 each AND 12; these are the 194 solutions, right?
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Yeah, I'm 14 years old, and these are indeed the 194 solutions. Thanks for the comments! :)
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So, Self-study is the reason for your knowledge?
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@Yatin Khanna – Pretty much, along with invitation to the IMO training camps.
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@Sharky Kesa – Great! You can be another source of inspiration for me from now on because sometimes I feel ashamed of being 15; after looking at your questions and their solutions.
Just before you conclude that n has at most 2 prime factors, where does the strict inequality come from?
Note that p i a i is the smallest prime power dividing n (e.g. if n = 2 3 × 3 × 5 , then p i = 3 , a i = 1 , etc.) so p i a i < p x a x , and similar holds for y . This gives ( p i a i − 1 ) 2 < p x a x p y a y .
Case 1: n is an odd number
Let n = a 1 p 1 a 2 p 2 ⋯ a m p m be the prime factorization of n . We will show that m = 2 , 3 .
Suppose that m = 2 , let n = a p 1 b p 2 be the prime factorization of n . We know that a + b − 1 = a q 1 b q 2 , where 0 ≤ q 1 ≤ p 1 , 0 ≤ q 2 ≤ p 2 .. We argue that one of q 1 or q 2 = 0 . Suppose this is not the case, then a ∣ b − 1 and b ∣ a − 1 . WLOG, let a > b , then this contradicts a ∣ b − 1 since b − 1 = k a ⟹ b = k a + 1 > a .
Without loss of generality, suppose that a q 1 , q 1 > 1 is a factor of n . Note that both a q 1 + b − 1 and a q 1 are factors of n . From a + b − 1 = a q 1 , rearrange to get b = a q 1 + 1 − a . Write a q 1 + b − 1 = 2 a q 1 − a = a r 1 b r 2 . Note that if both r 1 , r 2 ≥ 1 , then a ∣ b − 1 and b ∣ a q 1 − 1 . Note also that from 2 a q 1 − a = a r 1 b r 2 , we have 2 a q 1 − 2 + 2 − a = 2 ( b q ) + 2 − a being divisible by b . This implies b ∣ a − 2 . However, a ∣ b − 1 implies b = k a + 1 > a , but b ∣ a − 2 implies a = j b + 2 > b . This is clearly a contradiction, hence one of r 1 or r 2 must be 0 . In this case, obviously, r 2 = 0 . Division of the equation on both sides by a yields 2 a q 1 − 1 − 1 = a r 1 − 1 . There is only 1 solution to this equation, that is q 1 = k 1 = 1 . However, this contradicts our assumption that q 1 > 1 . Hence, m = 2 .
Suppose that m = 3 , let n = a p 1 b p 2 c p 3 be the prime factorization of n , and a + b − 1 = k c , which follows from above (Since m = 2 , a + b − 1 must have odd factors which are not a or b ). Note that b + c − 1 and a + c − 1 are also factors of n . Note that b + c − 1 and a + c − 1 are both not divisible by c . Suppose for the sake of contradiction that b + c − 1 is divisible by c , then this implies b − 1 is divisible by c . However, from a + b − 1 = k c , this implies a is divisible by c , which is a contradiction. The proof for a + c − 1 is analogous.
b + c − 1 must be divisible by a or b if we have m = 3 . Suppose that b + c − 1 is divisible by a , then a + c − 1 is not divisible by a . Suppose that a + c − 1 is divisible by a , then c − 1 is divisible by a , and this implies from b + c − 1 = k a that b is divisible by a , clearly a contradiction. Therefore, we have the following system of equations:
a + b − 1 = k c
b + c − 1 = m a
a + c − 1 = n b
which gives ( m + 1 ) a = ( k + 1 ) c = ( n + 1 ) b . Solving yields m + 1 = b c e , k + 1 = a b e , n + 1 = a c e . Upon substitution back into the original equation, we get a + b + c = a b c e + 1 . There is no solution for this equation when a , b , c ≥ 3 . The proof is left as an exercise to the readers.
Now, if we suppose that b + c − 1 is divisible by b , then a + c − 1 is divisible by a . The proof is analogous to the part where we assume b + c − 1 to be divisible by a . We have the following system of equations:
a + b − 1 = k c
b + c − 1 = l b
a + c − 1 = m a
The system of equations imply that c − 1 is divisible by both a and b . Write c = p a b + 1 . Substitution into the first equation gives a + b − 1 = k ( p a b + 1 ) = k p a b + k . However, note that for a , b ≥ 3 ,
k p a b + k > k p a b > a b > a + b > a + b − 1
so there is no solution to the equations above.
Having proven that m = 2 , 3 , we proceed to show that n > 1 0 0 0 for m ≥ 4 since 3 . 5 . 7 . 1 1 = 1 1 5 5 > 1 0 0 0 . Therefore, m = 1 . It is easy to note that any numbers in the form of n = a p i is indeed cool since the factors of n are 1 , a , a 2 ⋯ a p n , of which only the pairs of factors ( 1 , a p i ) meet the criteria of g cd ( a , b ) = 1 . But a + b − 1 = 1 + a p i − 1 = a p i , and these are clearly factors of n .
Case 2: n is an even number.
We neglect the case where n is a power of 2 , since these are obviously cool numbers. (Proof is analogous to our proof of n = a p i as cool numbers). Therefore, we can assume that n has the factors 2 and a , where a is odd.
Since a is relatively prime to 2 , 2 a is a factor of n as well. By the definition of cool numbers, a + 2 − 1 = a + 1 is a factor as well. Since a is relatively prime to a + 1 , a ( a + 1 ) is also a factor. Therefore, n has the following factors: 1 , 2 , a , 1 + a , 2 a , a ( a + 1 ) .
The family of factors above is closed under the operation of a + b − 1 as long as g cd ( a , b ) = 1 . This fulfills the condition of cool numbers above as long as the factors of a + 1 belong to the family above. In particular, since a + 1 is coprime with a , a + 1 must only have 2 as its factor (besides 1 and itself). This leaves the only possibility, that is a + 1 = 4 ⟹ a = 3 . These factors define n as 1 2 .
Now, suppose that a = 3 . If a + 1 is divisible by odd factors, then we are done. The proof follows from the part where we prove m = 2 , 3 . The proof still holds even when n is even, so we can conclude that no such n exists. If a + 1 is not divisible by any odd factors, it is a power of 2 . Since a + 1 = 4 , a + 1 must equal 2 n , where n ≥ 3 . Thus, we have the following factors for n : 1 , 2 , 4 , 8 , a , a + 1 , 2 a .
By definition of cool numbers, 4 + a − 1 = a + 3 and 8 + a − 1 = a + 7 are also factors. Suppose that g cd ( a , a + 3 ) = g cd ( a , 3 ) = 1 , then this implies a + 3 is a power of 2 . Since both a + 1 and a + 3 are powers of 2 , a = 1 but we know this is not the case. Suppose now that g cd ( a , a + 3 ) = 3 = 1 , then we know a = 3 n , n > 1 . Note that g cd ( a , a + 7 ) = g cd ( a , 7 ) = g cd ( 3 n , 7 ) = 1 , so a + 7 is not divisible by 3 , hence a power of 2 . But now both a + 1 and a + 7 are powers of 2 , which is impossible. Our proof is complete. All cool numbers below 1 0 0 0 must be in the form n = a p i with a prime and p i > 0 , bar the exception of 1 2 .
A quick computation (with aid of a list of prime numbers under 1 0 0 0 ) shows that there are 1 9 4 such numbers.
Great solution! +1 A slightly better solution is that you prove a general case for Case 1; that this is impossible for m > 3 .
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Let n = p 1 a 1 p 2 a 2 … p k a k . If a = p i a i is the smallest prime power dividing n (Given that p i a i ∣ ∣ n ), then b = p i a i n . Note that these two numbers are co-prime. Thus, we have
p i a i + p i a i n − 1 p i a i + p i a i n − 1 ⟹ p i a i + p i a i n − 1 ⟹ p i a i + p i a i n − 1 ⟹ p i a i + p i a i n − 1 ⟹ p i a i n ∣ n ∣ p i a i ( p i a i + p i a i n − 1 ) ∣ p i 2 a i + n − p i a i ∣ p i 2 a i − p i a i ≤ p i 2 a i − p i a i ≤ ( p i a i − 1 ) 2
If n has three or more prime factors, choose 2 prime powers distinct from p i a i (Call these two powers p x a x and p y a y .) We get the following:
p x a x p y a y ≤ p i a i n ≤ ( p i a i − 1 ) 2 < p x a x p y a y
This is a contradiction, so n has at most 2 prime factors.
Let n = p 1 a 1 p 2 a 2 . WLOG p 1 < p 2 . We have as follows:
p 1 + p 2 − 1 ⟹ 1 + p 1 p 2 − 1 ⟹ p 1 ⟹ p 2 − 1 ∣ n ∣ p 1 a 1 − 1 p 2 a 2 ∣ p 2 − 1 = k p 1 x
where p 1 x ∣ ∣ p 2 − 1 . We will now consider three cases:
Case 1: a 1 > 1
Let a = p 1 2 , and b = p 2 . We have:
p 1 2 + p 2 − 1 ⟹ p 1 2 + k p 1 x ⟹ p 1 2 ( 1 + k p 1 x − 2 ) ⟹ p 2 ∣ 1 + k p 1 x − 2 ⟹ 1 + k p 1 x ∣ 1 + k p 1 x − 2 ∣ n ∣ n ∣ n if x ≥ 2 ∣ p 1 2 n since gcd ( p 1 , 1 + k p 1 x − 2 ) = 1 ∣ p 1 2 n
Which is a contradiction. Thus, x = 1 . From this, we get
p 1 2 + k p 1 ⟹ p 1 + k ⟹ p 2 ⟹ k p 1 + 1 ⟹ k p 1 + 1 ⟹ k p 1 − k − p 1 + 1 ⟹ ( k − 1 ) ( p 1 − 1 ) ⟹ k ⟹ p 1 = 2 ⟹ n = 2 c 3 d ⟹ 2 + 3 − 1 ∣ n ⟹ 4 ∣ n ∣ n ∣ n ∣ p 1 + k ∣ n ∣ p 1 + k ≤ p 1 + k ≤ 0 ≤ 0 = 1 , p 2 = 3
If c ≥ 3 , 8 + 3 − 1 ∣ n ⟹ 1 0 ∣ n , but 5 doesn't divide n , which is a contradiction. Thus, c = 2 . Therefore, n = 4 × 3 d . If d ≥ 2 , 9 + 2 − 1 ∣ n ⟹ 1 0 ∣ n , but 5 doesn't divide n . Thus, d = 1 . Therefore, n = 1 2 , which we verify below:
Factors of 1 2 are 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 , 6 , 1 2 . Co-prime pairs are ( 1 , 1 ) , ( 1 , 2 ) , ( 1 , 3 ) , ( 1 , 4 ) , ( 1 , 6 ) , ( 1 , 1 2 ) , ( 2 , 3 ) , ( 3 , 4 ) , which yield a + b − 1 as 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 , 6 , 1 2 , 4 , 6 respectively, and these are all factors of 1 2 as well, so we're done in this case.
Case 2: n = p 1 p 2 a 2 ( a 2 ≥ 2 ) or n = p 1 p 2 .
If n = p 1 p 2 a 2 ,
p 1 + p 2 a 2 − 1 ⟹ p 2 a 2 p 1 − 1 + 1 ⟹ p 2 a 2 ∣ p 1 p 2 a 2 ∣ p 1 ∣ p 1 − 2
But this cannot be true since p 1 < p 2 by our WLOG assumption. Thus, a 2 ≥ 2 .
If n = p 1 p 2 ,
p 1 + p 2 − 1 ⟹ p 1 + p 2 − 1 ⟹ p 1 p 2 − p 1 − p 2 + 1 ⟹ ( p 1 − 1 ) ( p 2 − 1 ) ∣ n = p 1 p 2 = 0 = 0
But this cannot happen as p 1 , p 2 > 1 . Thus, n = p 1 p 2 .
Case 3: n = p x
This can be proven to be true. One of a or b must be 1, since all other factors are powers of p . WLOG a = 1 . Thus, a + b − 1 = b , and we already know b ∣ n , so we are done. Thus, n = p x is a solution.
Computing this, we get the number of satisfying solutions under 1000 is 194.