× B E E J J B E E E E E E P P P
The above shows a cryptarithm such that each letter represents a distinct single non-negative integer with J , B being non-zero. Find the sum of all the possible values of the 4 -digit number J E E P .
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The multiplication shows the last three digits of a square of a number is the same as the last three digits of the very number itself. So we have x 2 ≡ x ( m o d 1 0 0 0 ) or x ( x − 1 ) ≡ 0 ( m o d 1 0 0 0 ) . Since x and x − 1 are consecutive integers, then they are coprime. Because 1 0 0 0 = 2 3 ⋅ 5 3 , then one of x , x − 1 is divisible by 8 and the other is divisible by 125. Solve via Chinese Remainder Theorem gives x ≡ 0 0 1 , 3 7 6 , 6 2 5 ( m o d 1 0 0 0 ) but since the last three digits is of the form of E E P , then x ≡ 0 0 1 only. So E = 0 , P = 1 . And we are left to check for the squares of 1 0 0 1 , 2 0 0 1 , 3 0 0 1 , … , 9 0 0 1 . But since 4 0 0 1 2 is already a 7-digit number, we are then reduce to check for the squares of 1 0 0 1 , 2 0 0 1 , 3 0 0 1 . Inspection shows that J = 2 only.
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Nicely Done! Why don't you post this as a solution instead of a comment?
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I promise myself I only post solutions on Mondays
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@Pi Han Goh – Superstitious! :D ... OK! You post this comment as a solution on Monday!
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@Satyajit Mohanty – SLACK SLACK SLACK SLACK NOW NOW NOW
Well, there's just so many problems, all of the same type!
All have the same method, with a little bit of variation... Posting this, if somebody wants to solve problems of just 1 type, together!
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Problems might be similar, but approaches to all would be different! :P
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That's right @Satyajit Mohanty , you follow the way in your solution, and I follow the brute force! Lol, the 'same way' for all is programming, right?
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Though in your question a faster way than permutations is actually appending all the 1 0 4 possible quadruples in a list before, but see? The above algorithm can be typed in, in all the similar problems ;) Btw very nice 'non-bash' solution of yours, really liked it.
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@Aditya Raut – You're an Olympian Right! Programming never suits you. :P
I found the solution of Pi Han Goh, and I wrote 6003. Am I wrong? and if I am right why I can't point?
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6003^2 is an 8 digit integer, not a 7-digit integer, so it didn't satisfy the criteria, so it's a not a solution.
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I meant I wrote 1001 + 2001 +3001=6003.
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@Guillermo Templado – Answer is 2001, not 6003. Check your arithmetic again.
@Guillermo Templado – Ok, I saw my mistake
\sqrt{10000000} = around 3162 so Jeep is less than that because BEEBEEP is only 7 digits long. Unless P = 1, BEEBEEP won't make sense (5 and 6 would mess it up). E is obviously 0. Try 1001^2 in calculator, doesn't work. Try 2001^2 in calculator, works, Try 3001^2 in calculator, doesn't work. Answer is 2001.
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So we have P 2 = P + 1 0 k for some integer k , 0 ≤ k ≤ 8 , we see that P is one of 0 , 1 , 5 or 6 . Now by considering the last two digits of each factor and the product we have ( 1 0 E + P ) 2 = 1 0 0 n + 1 0 E + P for some integer n < 1 0 0 .
This means that 2 0 P E + P 2 − 1 0 E − P = 1 0 E ( 2 P − 1 ) + P ( P − 1 ) is a multiple of 1 0 0 . Let us consider P = 6 . Then 1 1 0 E + 3 0 is a multiple of 1 0 0 , implying that E = 7 . This means that 7 7 6 2 must end in the digits 7 7 6 , but 7 7 6 2 actually ends in the digits 1 7 6 . Thus, P = 6 .
Next try P = 5 . Then 9 0 E + 2 0 is a multiple of 1 0 0 , implying that E = 2 . This means that 2 2 5 2 must end in the digits 2 2 5 , but 2 2 5 2 actually ends in the digits 6 2 5 . Thus P = 5 . Therefore, P = 0 or 1 .
In either case we have P ( P − 1 ) = 0 , which means that 1 0 E ( 2 P − 1 ) is a multiple of 1 0 0 . Since 2 P − 1 = ± 1 , we conclude that E = 0 implying that P = 1 , since it must be different from E . Thus we have P = 1 , E = 0 . Then we have B = J 2 and B = 2 J , since ( J 0 0 1 ) 2 = ( J ) 2 0 0 ( 2 J ) 0 0 1 = B 0 0 B 0 0 1 . Since J 2 = 2 J and J = 0 , we conclude that J = 2 , whence J E E P = 2 0 0 1 .
If you've entered this problem via this wiki: Cryptogram , and if you're looking for a solution involving Chinese-Remainder Theorem , please check in the comments to this post for @PiHanGoh 's solution.