No solution?

Find the integer n 2015 n \neq 2015 such that

( n 14 ) ( 2015 14 ) = 0. \binom{n}{14} - \binom{2015}{14} = 0.


The answer is -2002.

This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and, finally, (c) loading the non-javascript version of this page . We're sorry about the hassle.

1 solution

Steven Yuan
Jan 2, 2015

Rewrite the equation as

( n 14 ) = ( 2015 14 ) . \binom{n}{14} = \binom{2015}{14}.

Since n 2015 , n \neq 2015, n n has to be negative. (Yes, there is such a thing!) To find n n , we use the fact that, for positive integers a a and b , b,

( a b ) = ( 1 ) b ( a + b 1 b ) . \binom{-a}{b} = (-1)^{b} \binom{a + b - 1}{b}.

In this case, we have b = 14 b = 14 and a = 2002 , a = 2002, so n = 2002 . n = \boxed{-2002}.

steven....nCr is defined only for n belonging to natural no.

mudit bansal - 6 years, 5 months ago

Log in to reply

Yes, that is what made me to dump the idea of n being a negative number.

Kartik Sharma - 6 years, 5 months ago

Log in to reply

I think I should list this problem under Algebra instead, because the solution is algebraic rather than related to actual combinations or counting.

Steven Yuan - 6 years, 5 months ago

Log in to reply

@Steven Yuan @steven Yaun:but the operations you applied are completely related with combinations.there is no way you can apply it to rather normal algebra

mudit bansal - 6 years, 5 months ago

Log in to reply

@Mudit Bansal The binomial coefficients have a natural extension to negative and even fractional coefficients.

They do have applications in combinatorics. For example, they can be obtained by "extending" the Pascal's triangle up above the first row.

Calvin Lin Staff - 6 years, 5 months ago

Log in to reply

@Calvin Lin you can apply -ve and fractional coefficients to n in (a+bx)^n but not in nCr.nCr is by defualt defined for n belonging to natural no.

mudit bansal - 6 years, 5 months ago

Log in to reply

@Mudit Bansal Yes and so I think because both the logic are correct in their sense, both are correct.

Kartik Sharma - 6 years, 5 months ago

Log in to reply

@Kartik Sharma Well, we can define ( n k ) \binom{n}{k} so that n n can be negative or fractional. Since

( n k ) = n ! k ! ( n k ) ! , \binom{n}{k} = \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!},

we can divide the numerator and denominator by ( n k ) ! (n-k)! to get

( n k ) = ( n ) ( n 1 ) ( n k + 1 ) k ! . \binom{n}{k} = \frac{(n)(n-1)\cdots(n-k+1)}{k!}.

This definition allows us to calculate ( n k ) \binom{n}{k} when n n is negative or fractional; the only requirement is that k k must be a nonnegative integer.

Steven Yuan - 6 years, 5 months ago

Log in to reply

@Steven Yuan interesting! can you further explain how to extend the pascals triangle in the upward direction then?

INFO WEB - 7 months, 3 weeks ago

WA'ed this lol

math man - 6 years, 4 months ago

0 pending reports

×

Problem Loading...

Note Loading...

Set Loading...