Natural Logarithm Integral

Calculus Level 2

Compute the definite integral 0 1 ( x ln x ) 50 d x . \int_{0}^{1} (x\ln x)^{50} \, dx.

49 ! 5 0 51 \dfrac{49!}{50^{51}} 51 ! 5 0 50 \dfrac{51!}{50^{50}} 50 ! 5 1 51 \dfrac{50!}{51^{51}} 50 ! 4 9 51 \dfrac{50!}{49^{51}}

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4 solutions

Aareyan Manzoor
Feb 23, 2016

Consider F ( a ) = 0 1 x a dx = 1 a + 1 F(a)=\int_0^1 x^a \text{dx}=\dfrac{1}{a+1} differentiating with respect to a 50 times we get F ( 50 ) ( a ) = 0 1 ln 50 ( x ) x a dx = 50 ! ( a + 1 ) 51 F^{(50)}(a)=\int_0^1 \ln^{50}(x)x^a\text{dx}= \dfrac{50!}{(a+1)^{51}} put a=50 F ( 50 ) ( 50 ) = 0 1 ln 50 ( x ) x 50 dx = 50 ! 5 1 51 F^{(50)}(50)=\int_0^1 \ln^{50}(x)x^{50}\text{dx}=\boxed{ \dfrac{50!}{51^{51}}}

Moderator note:

Be careful with interchanging the integration and differentiation sign. What are the conditions under which this can be done?

Can you give a hint to arrive at the very first 'consideration' ?

Vishal Yadav - 4 years, 2 months ago

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just experience, usually to get log of something differentiating a power function under theintegral works.

Aareyan Manzoor - 4 years, 1 month ago

This can also be done using gamma function

Md Zuhair - 4 years ago

[This comment is incorrect.]

Be very careful with justifying when / why you can "differentiate with respect to a a 50 times".

For example, we cannot conclude that

F ( 50 ) ( 49 ) = 0 1 ln 50 ( x ) x 49 dx = 50 ! ( 50 ) 51 F^{(50)}(49)=\int_0^1 \ln^{50}(x)x^{49} \text{dx}= \dfrac{50!}{(50)^{51}}

Calvin Lin Staff - 5 years, 3 months ago

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sir can you explain when this is justified?

Aareyan Manzoor - 5 years, 3 months ago

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Oh, I take that back. I was thinking that we were differentiating with respect to x x instead.

This looks good.

Calvin Lin Staff - 5 years, 3 months ago

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@Calvin Lin When we put b as negative, there is a negative sign if we do by parts, but in this method it doesn't come. Why?

Aniswar S K - 3 years, 11 months ago

Cn u explain how Ln came inside integral when you differentiated

Dhruv Aggarwal - 5 years, 3 months ago

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d d n x n = ln ( x ) x n \dfrac{d}{dn} x^n=\ln(x)x^n

Aareyan Manzoor - 5 years, 3 months ago
Patrick Corn
May 26, 2016

Differentiating under the integral sign is much slicker, but you can do this directly by integrating by parts.

Let F ( a , b ) = 0 1 x a ( ln x ) b d x . F(a,b) = \int_0^1 x^a (\ln x)^b \, dx. Then if a , b > 0 , a,b>0, integrating by parts shows that F ( a , b ) = b a + 1 F ( a , b 1 ) . F(a,b) = -\frac{b}{a+1} F(a,b-1). If b b is a positive integer, we can apply this formula b b times to get F ( a , b ) = ( 1 ) b b ! ( a + 1 ) b F ( a , 0 ) = ( 1 ) b b ! ( a + 1 ) b + 1 . F(a,b) = (-1)^b \frac{b!}{(a+1)^b} F(a,0) = (-1)^b \frac{b!}{(a+1)^{b+1}}. Now plug in a = b = 50 a=b=50 to get the result.

Is this valid only when a>b as when we apply the lower limit, ln0 becomes negative infinity??

Aniswar S K - 3 years, 11 months ago

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No, lim x 0 x a ( ln x ) b = 0 \lim\limits_{x\to 0} x^a (\ln x)^b = 0 for any a , b > 0. a,b > 0.

Patrick Corn - 3 years, 4 months ago

Plzz can you solve integral of sin^100x.cos^99x dx limits from 0 to 2pie

abhishek kulkarni - 4 years, 8 months ago

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Use walli's formula!!

Aniswar S K - 3 years, 11 months ago

I got 0 by application of definite integral properties

Vishal Mishra - 3 years, 3 months ago
Frankie Maxfield
Mar 10, 2020

Me and a friend found a beautiful solution for this without differentiating under the integral sign.

0 1 x 50 ln 50 x d x \int_0^1 x^{50}\ln^{50} x dx Substitutions: t = ln x -t=\ln x ; t = ln x t=-\ln x ; x = e t x=e^{-t} ; d t = 1 x d x -dt=\frac{1}{x}dx ; e t d t = d x -e^{-t}dt=dx ;

Bounds: Lower: t ( 0 ) = lim x 0 ln x = ( ) = t(0)=-\lim\limits_{x\to 0} \ln x = -(-\infty)=\infty ; Upper: t ( 1 ) = ln 1 = 0 t(1)=\ln 1 = 0 0 ( e t ) 50 ( t ) 50 ( e t ) d t = 0 t 50 e 50 t e t d t = 0 t 50 e 51 t d t \int_{\infty}^0 (e^{-t})^{50}\cdot(-t)^{50}\cdot(-e^{-t})dt = -\int_{\infty}^0 t^{50}e^{-50t}e^{-t}dt = \int_0^{\infty} t^{50}e^{-51t}dt Substitutions: z = 51 t z=51t ; 1 51 d z = d t \frac{1}{51}dz=dt ; t = z 51 t=\frac{z}{51}

Bounds: Stay the same. 1 51 0 ( z 51 ) 50 e z d z = 1 5 1 51 0 z 50 e z d z = Γ ( 50 + 1 ) 5 1 51 = 50 ! 5 1 51 \frac{1}{51}\int_0^{\infty} (\frac{z}{51})^{50}e^{-z}dz = \frac{1}{51^{51}}\int_0^{\infty} z^{50}e^{-z}dz = \frac{\Gamma(50+1)}{51^{51}} = \boxed{\frac{50!}{51^{51}}}

let f(t) = t^n. Consider the final integral in t (before substitution into an expression in z). This is the Laplace transform of a monomial. s and n+1 happen to be the same. L{f}(51) is the answer sought.

Erik G - 7 months, 1 week ago
Abhijeet Jha
Jan 19, 2019

Since this is an objective question, we could calculate a guess. If we use by parts then one can notice 51^51 showing up in the denominator.

It should be 50!/51^51

瀚 黄 - 2 years ago

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