Compute the definite integral ∫ 0 1 ( x ln x ) 5 0 d x .
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Be careful with interchanging the integration and differentiation sign. What are the conditions under which this can be done?
Can you give a hint to arrive at the very first 'consideration' ?
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just experience, usually to get log of something differentiating a power function under theintegral works.
This can also be done using gamma function
[This comment is incorrect.]
Be very careful with justifying when / why you can "differentiate with respect to a 50 times".
For example, we cannot conclude that
F ( 5 0 ) ( 4 9 ) = ∫ 0 1 ln 5 0 ( x ) x 4 9 dx = ( 5 0 ) 5 1 5 0 !
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sir can you explain when this is justified?
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Oh, I take that back. I was thinking that we were differentiating with respect to x instead.
This looks good.
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@Calvin Lin – When we put b as negative, there is a negative sign if we do by parts, but in this method it doesn't come. Why?
Cn u explain how Ln came inside integral when you differentiated
Differentiating under the integral sign is much slicker, but you can do this directly by integrating by parts.
Let F ( a , b ) = ∫ 0 1 x a ( ln x ) b d x . Then if a , b > 0 , integrating by parts shows that F ( a , b ) = − a + 1 b F ( a , b − 1 ) . If b is a positive integer, we can apply this formula b times to get F ( a , b ) = ( − 1 ) b ( a + 1 ) b b ! F ( a , 0 ) = ( − 1 ) b ( a + 1 ) b + 1 b ! . Now plug in a = b = 5 0 to get the result.
Is this valid only when a>b as when we apply the lower limit, ln0 becomes negative infinity??
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No, x → 0 lim x a ( ln x ) b = 0 for any a , b > 0 .
Plzz can you solve integral of sin^100x.cos^99x dx limits from 0 to 2pie
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Use walli's formula!!
I got 0 by application of definite integral properties
Me and a friend found a beautiful solution for this without differentiating under the integral sign.
∫ 0 1 x 5 0 ln 5 0 x d x Substitutions: − t = ln x ; t = − ln x ; x = e − t ; − d t = x 1 d x ; − e − t d t = d x ;
Bounds: Lower: t ( 0 ) = − x → 0 lim ln x = − ( − ∞ ) = ∞ ; Upper: t ( 1 ) = ln 1 = 0 ∫ ∞ 0 ( e − t ) 5 0 ⋅ ( − t ) 5 0 ⋅ ( − e − t ) d t = − ∫ ∞ 0 t 5 0 e − 5 0 t e − t d t = ∫ 0 ∞ t 5 0 e − 5 1 t d t Substitutions: z = 5 1 t ; 5 1 1 d z = d t ; t = 5 1 z
Bounds: Stay the same. 5 1 1 ∫ 0 ∞ ( 5 1 z ) 5 0 e − z d z = 5 1 5 1 1 ∫ 0 ∞ z 5 0 e − z d z = 5 1 5 1 Γ ( 5 0 + 1 ) = 5 1 5 1 5 0 !
let f(t) = t^n. Consider the final integral in t (before substitution into an expression in z). This is the Laplace transform of a monomial. s and n+1 happen to be the same. L{f}(51) is the answer sought.
Since this is an objective question, we could calculate a guess. If we use by parts then one can notice 51^51 showing up in the denominator.
It should be 50!/51^51
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Consider F ( a ) = ∫ 0 1 x a dx = a + 1 1 differentiating with respect to a 50 times we get F ( 5 0 ) ( a ) = ∫ 0 1 ln 5 0 ( x ) x a dx = ( a + 1 ) 5 1 5 0 ! put a=50 F ( 5 0 ) ( 5 0 ) = ∫ 0 1 ln 5 0 ( x ) x 5 0 dx = 5 1 5 1 5 0 !