For all n ∈ Z , let ω ( n ) denote the number of distinct prime divisors of n . Find the sum of all primes p such that ω ( ( p − 1 ) ! + 1 ) = 1 .
Details and assumptions
This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try
refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and,
finally, (c)
loading the
non-javascript version of this page
. We're sorry about the hassle.
may I ask where ( p − 1 ) 2 ∣ ( p − 1 ) ! come from, still a bit confused here :/
wilson and liouville
can you tell us the liouville theorem you're talking about? There are a lot of different theorems proved by him...
Sorry, I will post a better solution involving proper methods later. For now, I solved this question by hit and trial. We see that for 2 , 3 and 5 ...the answers are 2 , 3 and 2 5 respectively which have exactly one prime divisor (unique). Verifying for 7 and 1 1 , we find that they don't work. Thus answer= 2 + 3 + 5 = 1 0
I tried Wilson's theorem.
Log in to reply
How can you prove that primes greater than or equal to 7 will give a value greater than 1 .
Log in to reply
Sorry! I will try solving it properly and edit my solution later as mentioned above.
Log in to reply
@Krishna Ar – The proof is given by inequality: for p>5, ( p − 1 ) 2 ∣ ( p − 1 ) ! = p m − 1
Thus, p − 1 ∣ m and then we will get p m − 1 > ( p − 1 ) !
That leaves p=2,3,5
Log in to reply
@Bogdan Simeonov – Wow. That proof was niceee! ^_^. I came up with something different and was no wonder stuck on it :(. Do you attend some special school? I hear Bulgarians are good at math ;)
Log in to reply
@Krishna Ar – Well, there are many countries on the Balkan Peninsula which are great at math, such as Romania.I guess we are somewhat good.I study at a school with a math profile, but I learn mostly by going to the Balkan Olympiad lectures we are having right now and books, Brilliant , the Internet etc.Where did you hear that Bulgarians were good at math?I'm curious :D
Log in to reply
@Bogdan Simeonov – Well, yes- I actually thought that you were mathematically motivated because you did answer a lot of good questions on this site. And w.r.t Bulgarians- I think Its because of your firstname. I see many math authors - Bogdan Enescu and the like with the same first name. What are those lectures? Are they held only in Bulgaria?
Log in to reply
@Krishna Ar – The lectures are on a training camp for the Balkan Olympiad.It's like IMO training, but for the Balkan MO.Every country which participates in an MO has these training camps where students solve problems.Also, Bogdan Enescu is from Romania.
Problem Loading...
Note Loading...
Set Loading...
For ω ( n ) to be equal to 1 , we need n to be equal to q r where q is any prime no. and r ϵ N .
Therefore, we need ( p − 1 ) ! + 1 = q r
But, observe that -
( p − 1 ) ! + 1 ≡ 0 ( m o d p ) (By Wilson Theorem)
⇒ ( p − 1 ) ! + 1 = p m (for some m )
But, again remember that ( p − 1 ) ! + 1 = q r .
This suggests that m should be equal to p k − 1 for some arbitrary k which enables us to write
( p − 1 ) ! + 1 = p k
⇒ ( p − 1 ) ! = p k − 1
Now, we suspect that the solutions to the above equation are 2 , 3 , 5 only.
This can easily be proved by considering the following inequality for p ≥ 7
( p − 1 ) 2 ∣ ( p − 1 ) !
⇒ ( p − 1 ) 2 ∣ p k − 1
⇒ p − 1 ∣ 1 + p + p 2 + … p k − 1
⇒ p k − 1 > ( p − 1 ) !
Thus, the only solutions are 2 , 3 , 5 which sum up to 2 + 3 + 5 = 1 0