Difficulty: Moderate.
A pendulum hinged at the origin of point-mass m = 1 k g with string length l = 1 m is dropped from an angle θ = 2 1 π radians, with respect to the negative y -axis (see below for the coordinate system) .
However, this time, there is basic drag force, dependent on the velocity of the point-mass, given by:
F d = − C d r a g l θ ˙
This drag force opposes the motion of the mass.
Find the time it takes for the bob to reach x = 0 or θ = 0 , after the bob swings fully to the left . In other words, find the time it takes for the second instance where the bob reaches θ = 0 . Enter your answer in seconds to 1 decimal place.
Try to use numerical methods to solve; integrals will not help you here due to the complexity of the EOM.
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This was a fun problem. I divided the simulation into different time periods to keep track of how long each part takes. It takes the pendulum ≈ 0 . 6 6 0 seconds to swing from its starting position to θ = 0 . Then from the extreme left position, it takes ≈ 0 . 5 8 2 seconds to move back to θ = 0 . Relative to the very start of the simulation, the pendulum crosses θ = 0 from the left at time t ≈ 1 . 7 1 4 8 . This differs slightly from the expected answer. I used explicit Euler with time steps of 1 0 − 5 and 1 0 − 6 . I have attached a graph of angle vs time as well.
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Woah that's so cool how you produced nearly the exact same graph as me. They look so similar. I like how you directly simulated by calculating force at each point rather than simply numerically integrating the EOM. I may use that approach in some of my upcoming problems!
I wonder... maybe the difference in integration method caused the slight difference. Either-way, the graphs both show the exact same results. Thanks for posting the solution.
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What result do you get when you use a time step of 1 0 − 5 or 1 0 − 6 ?
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I get around 1.69 (converging to 1.7)
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@Krishna Karthik – I suspect that there is some other slight discrepancy in how we are doing calculations. Because with time steps that small, both integration methods should agree very closely. But the results are close enough for me. Thanks for posting
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@Steven Chase – Oh I rechecked, and it seems there is a slight discrepancy in my code, that made it less accurate originally when . The timestep (when ran the program) was 1 0 − 2 when I thought it was 1 0 − 6 , and clearly isn't small enough. I re-ran and put in 1 0 − 6 , which gives me the exact same answer as you, to 4 decimal places.
Well, I would update the solution if I could, but it won't allow. Since you have entered the exact answer and it did mark you as a solver, I hope there will be no problem for future solvers...
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@Krishna Karthik – Brilliant's decimal answer format counts an attempt correct if it is within 3 percent of the expected answer. So it should be OK
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Edit: it seems there was a slight miscalculation in my program, and when originally entering the answer, I accidentally set time-step to 1 0 − 2 , something which was left over from graphing. I rechecked, and the more precise answer is 1.714826 seconds
I'm going to use the Newtonian model to derive the equation of motion, although this can be done the Lagrangian way, by introducing a dissipative term into the Euler-Lagrange equation. The maths is harder by Lagrangian, however:
d t d ∂ x ˙ ∂ L = ∂ x ∂ L + ∂ x ∂ D
The force of gravity acting on the particle tangentially is:
F t a n g e n t i a l = − m g sin ( θ )
The force of drag acting opposite to θ ˙ is:
F d = − l θ ˙
Total force:
m θ ¨ = − m g sin ( θ ) − c θ ˙
I numerically integrated this till time t = 1 0 seconds, and plotted θ and time values.
The dampening force is acting well, and it looks realistic. The amplitude of each swing reduces due to drag; the dissipated energy increases after each swing. Here's an energy statistics graph:
I plotted with time-step 1 0 − 2 , but used Runge-Kutta 4th Order, which is more ideal for oscillating motion.
Here's my code (time-step 1 0 − 6 ):