Evaluate the expression:
8 1 n = 1 ∑ ∞ ∏ i = 1 n ( 9 + i ) ( n − 1 ) !
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In the fifth line on the array of equations of S, I think, the denominator of the 2nd fraction should also be (n + 9)! right? :D
There is a simpler answer with no need of beta function:
S = 8 1 n = 1 ∑ ∞ ∏ i = 1 n ( 9 + i ) ( n − 1 ) !
S = 8 1 ⋅ 9 ! n = 1 ∑ ∞ 9 ! ∏ i = 1 n ( 9 + i ) ( n − 1 ) !
S = 8 1 ⋅ 9 ! n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( n + 9 ) ! ( n − 1 ) !
S = 8 1 ⋅ 9 ! n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( n + 9 ) ( n + 8 ) ( n + 7 ) ( n + 6 ) ( n + 5 ) ( n + 4 ) ( n + 3 ) ( n + 2 ) ( n + 1 ) n 1
S = 8 1 ⋅ 9 ! n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( n + 9 ) ( n + 8 ) ( n + 7 ) ( n + 6 ) ( n + 5 ) ( n + 4 ) ( n + 3 ) ( n + 2 ) ( n + 1 ) n 1 ⋅ 9 ( n + 9 ) − n
S = 9 ⋅ 9 ! n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( n + 8 ) ( n + 7 ) ( n + 6 ) ( n + 5 ) ( n + 4 ) ( n + 3 ) ( n + 2 ) ( n + 1 ) n 1 − ( n + 9 ) ( n + 8 ) ( n + 7 ) ( n + 6 ) ( n + 5 ) ( n + 4 ) ( n + 3 ) ( n + 2 ) ( n + 1 ) 1
This will telescope, and only the first term will remain:
S = 9 ⋅ 9 ! [ ( n + 8 ) ( n + 7 ) ( n + 6 ) ( n + 5 ) ( n + 4 ) ( n + 3 ) ( n + 2 ) ( n + 1 ) n 1 ] n = 1
S = 9 ⋅ 9 ! ⋅ 9 ! 1
S = 9
We have ∫ 0 1 x a − 1 ( 1 − x ) b − 1 d x = B ( a , b ) = Γ ( a + b ) Γ ( a ) Γ ( b ) = ( a + b − 1 ) ! ( a − 1 ) ! ( b − 1 ) ! for integers a , b ≥ 1 . We need to evaluate 8 1 n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( n + 9 ) ! ( n − 1 ) ! 9 ! = 8 1 n = 1 ∑ ∞ B ( n , 1 0 ) = 8 1 n = 1 ∑ ∞ ∫ 0 1 x n − 1 ( 1 − x ) 9 d x = 8 1 ∫ 0 1 1 − x 1 ( 1 − x ) 9 d x = 8 1 ∫ 0 1 ( 1 − x ) 8 d x = 8 1 × 9 1 = 9
So, this can prove my theory sir then? Right Sir? :D
Amazing solution sir, BTW. ^^
I was trying to prove my theorem using induction but it's not possible. HAHA.
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Yes, because you are evaluating n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( n + a ) ! ( n − 1 ) ! a ! = n = 1 ∑ ∞ B ( n , a + 1 ) = n = 1 ∑ ∞ ∫ 0 1 x n − 1 ( 1 − x ) a d x = ∫ 0 1 ( 1 − x ) a − 1 d x = a − 1
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Calculus is really amazing. HAHA.
As easy as 1, 2, 3 for Calculus, as hard as finding the exact value of ζ ( 3 ) for algebra. HAHA.
Is it possible for proving my theory without the aid of calculus? ( Just asking sir. :D )
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@Christian Daang – Probably, but it is fiddly. You need to prove the partial fractions expansion of ( n + 1 ) ( n + 2 ) ⋯ ( n + a + 1 ) a ! in terms of the Binomial coefficients (use standard partial fractions techniques, treating n as the variable), and then you need to perform the sum to infinity over n , using a Method of Differences type of approach. You will then be left with a finite sum to evaluate (the finite number of terms not cancelled out by the MoD).
I try it for certain values of α i.e. 1, 2, 5, 9 and my theorem somewhat works.
n = 1 ∑ ∞ i = 1 ∏ n ( α + i ) ( n − 1 ) ! = α 1
and hence,
8 1 n = 1 ∑ ∞ i = 1 ∏ n ( 9 + i ) ( n − 1 ) ! = 8 1 ⋅ 9 1 = 9
For α = 1
n = 1 ∑ ∞ i = 1 ∏ n ( 1 + i ) ( n − 1 ) ! = 1 ! n = 0 ∑ ∞ ( n + 2 ) ! n ! = n = 0 ∑ ∞ ( n + 2 ) ( n + 1 ) 1 ! = n = 0 ∑ ∞ ( n + 1 1 − ( n + 2 ) 1 ) = 1 1
For α = 2
n = 1 ∑ ∞ i = 1 ∏ n ( 2 + i ) ( n − 1 ) ! = 2 ! n = 0 ∑ ∞ ( n + 3 ) ! n ! = n = 0 ∑ ∞ ( n + 3 ) ( n + 2 ) ( n + 1 ) 2 ! = n = 0 ∑ ∞ ( n + 1 1 − ( n + 2 ) 2 + ( n + 3 ) 1 ) = 2 1
For α = 5
n = 1 ∑ ∞ i = 1 ∏ n ( 5 + i ) ( n − 1 ) ! = 5 ! n = 0 ∑ ∞ ( n + 6 ) ! n ! = n = 0 ∑ ∞ ( n + 6 ) ( n + 5 ) ( n + 4 ) ( n + 3 ) ( n + 2 ) ( n + 1 ) 5 ! = n = 0 ∑ ∞ ( n + 1 1 − ( n + 2 ) 5 + ( n + 3 ) 1 0 − n + 4 1 0 − ( n + 5 ) 5 + ( n + 6 ) 1 0 ) = 5 1
and so on...
Notice that the red colored numbers are the numbers in the ( α + 1 ) t h row of the Pascal's Triangle.
Update: Formal Proof of my Theorem
n = 1 ∑ ∞ i = 1 ∏ n ( α + i ) ( n − 1 ) ! = n = 1 ∑ ∞ α ( α + 1 ) ( α + 2 ) ⋯ ( α + n ) ( n − 1 ) ! ⋅ α = n = 1 ∑ ∞ α ( α + 1 ) ( α + 2 ) ⋯ ( α + n ) ( n − 1 ) ! ⋅ ( α + n − n ) = n = 1 ∑ ∞ α ( α + 1 ) ( α + 2 ) ⋯ ( α + n − 1 ) ( α + n ) ( ( n − 1 ) ! ( α + n ) ) − ( n ! ) = n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( α ( α + 1 ) ( α + 2 ) ⋯ ( α + n − 1 ) ( n − 1 ) ! − α ( α + 1 ) ( α + 2 ) ⋯ ( α + n ) ( n ) ! ) ⋅
Let f ( n ) = α ( α + 1 ) ( α + 2 ) ⋯ ( α + n − 1 ) ( n − 1 ) ! ⟹ f ( n + 1 ) = α ( α + 1 ) ( α + 2 ) ⋯ ( α + n ) ( n ) ! ⋅
⟹ n = 1 ∑ ∞ i = 1 ∏ n ( α + i ) ( n − 1 ) ! = n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( f ( n ) − f ( n + 1 ) ) = ( f ( 1 ) − f ( 2 ) ) + ( f ( 2 ) − f ( 3 ) ) + ( f ( 3 ) − f ( 4 ) ) + ⋯
which will telescopes to f ( 1 ) ⋅
⟹ n = 1 ∑ ∞ i = 1 ∏ n ( α + i ) ( n − 1 ) ! = f ( 1 ) = α ( 1 − 1 ) ! = α 1 ⋅
Credits to the Owner of this Solution. ^^
You have shown that n = 1 ∑ ∞ i = 1 ∏ n ( α + i ) ( n − 1 ) ! = α 1 is true for α = 1 and α = 2 , but how do you know that it's true for α = 9 too?
Hint: Partial fractions - Cver up rule .
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I used algebra sir. XD Like, I do it manually. XD Seeing some terms to be cancelled out and the remaining term is 9 1 . :)
That's what I also did sir. XD The Cover Up Rule. :D
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Nice! The cover up rule shows that the coefficients would be of the form ( − 1 ) i ( i α ) :)
Sir, Done doing the proof. :D
Actually, the identity can be proven using telescoping sum, as presented in my solution.
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This solution requires nothing but a subtle observation. We let S = = = = = = = n = 1 ∑ ∞ ∏ i = 1 n ( 9 + i ) ( n − 1 ) ! n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( n + 9 ) ! ( n − 1 ) ! × 9 ! 1 0 1 n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( n + 9 ) ! ( n − 1 ) ! × 9 ! × 1 0 1 0 1 n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( n + 9 ) ! ( n − 1 ) ! × 9 ! × ( n + 9 − ( n − 1 ) ) 1 0 1 n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( ( n + 9 ) ! ( n − 1 ) ! × 9 ! × ( n + 9 ) − ( n + 9 ) ! ( n − 1 ) ! × ( n − 1 ) × 9 ! ) 1 0 1 n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( ( n + 8 ) ! ( n − 1 ) ! × 9 ! − ( n + 9 ) ! n ! × 9 ! + ( n + 9 ) ! ( n − 1 ) ! × 9 ! ) 1 0 1 n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( ( n + 8 ) ! ( n − 1 ) ! × 9 ! − ( n + 9 ) ! n ! × 9 ! ) + 1 0 1 n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( n + 9 ) ! ( n − 1 ) ! × 9 ! Observe that at the last step, we used the equality ( n − 1 ) × ( n − 1 ) ! = n ! − ( n − 1 ) ! . Also, notice that the terms highlighted in blue are multiples of each other, and the terms highlighted in magenta is telescoping. With that, we obtain 9 S = 1 , which gives 8 1 S = 9 .