n t h n^{th} root limit!

Calculus Level 1

For a constant k k ,

lim n n n 1 = e k . \lim_{ n \to \infty } n^{n^{-1} } = e^k .

Find the value of ln ( k 2 + 1 ) . \ln \big( k^2 +1 \big).

0 0.512 1 π π 1 \dfrac { \pi}{\pi - 1}

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2 solutions

U Z
Nov 10, 2014

Let y = n 1 n y = n^{\frac{1}{n}}

l o g y = 1 n l o g n logy = \frac{1}{n}logn

y = e 1 n l o g n y = e^{\frac{1}{n}logn}

l i m n y = lim_{n \to \infty} y = \frac{\infty}{\infty} form

applying L hospital rule

thus l i m n e 1 n = e 0 lim_{n \to \infty}e^{\frac{1}{n}} = e^{0}

let y=n^n^(-1)=n^(1/n)
now when n approaches to infinity 1/n tends to zero.
now power zero of n which approaches to infinity will be 1.
i.e lim y=1=e^k ------>k=0
P.S- this solution is not right(why?). Kindly read comments.

Parveen Soni - 6 years, 7 months ago

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Your claim is not true.

What you are saying is that if lim g ( x ) = 0 \lim g(x) = 0 , then lim f ( x ) g ( x ) = 1 \lim f(x) ^ { g(x) } = 1 .

Do you see why this is not necessarily true? Can you find counter examples?

Calvin Lin Staff - 6 years, 7 months ago

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got your point. lim f(x)^g(x) is not accordance with my claim when both f(x) and g(x) are zero or both are infinity or f(x)=∞ and g(x)=0 i.e intermediate forms. updated my solution.

Parveen Soni - 6 years, 7 months ago

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@Parveen Soni Right. The way to approach lim f ( x ) g ( x ) \lim f(x) ^ { g(x) } when it is of indeterminate form, is to take logs, and look at g ( x ) ln f ( x ) g(x) \ln f(x) , and see if that converges.

Calvin Lin Staff - 6 years, 6 months ago

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@Calvin Lin I didn't understand why f(x)^g(x) when g(x) --> 0 then f(x)^g(x) --> 1. Could you explain in another way, didnt got that one. Thanks

Ivan Martinez - 6 years, 2 months ago

Damn ! Got k=0 but didn't notice the log .

Keshav Tiwari - 6 years, 7 months ago

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Same here.

Charlie Pu - 1 year, 10 months ago

Can you explain how lim y \lim y is of \frac{ \infty} { \infty} form? Do you mean lim log y \lim \log y instead?

Calvin Lin Staff - 6 years, 7 months ago

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e l i m n l o g n n e^{lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{logn}{n}}

Applying L.H on l o g n n \frac{logn}{n}

U Z - 6 years, 7 months ago

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Right, so you are applying it to log y \log y , as opposed to applying it to y y directly.

Calvin Lin Staff - 6 years, 7 months ago

@Calvin Lin

I know it's been a while since you asked, but: y = n 1 n = e l n ( n ) n y = n^{\frac{1}{n}} = e^{\frac{ln(n)}{n}} so lim n inf n 1 n = lim n inf e l n ( n ) n = e lim n inf l n ( n ) n \lim_{n \rightarrow \inf}{n^{\frac{1}{n}}} = \lim_{n \rightarrow \inf}e^{\frac{ln(n)}{n}} = e^{ \lim_{n \rightarrow \inf} \frac{ln(n)}{n} } . That is, lim y \lim{y} doesn't actually have the form of the inf inf \frac{\inf}{\inf} , but its exponent does. The original answer is written badly imo

J P - 2 years, 3 months ago

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Right, that's why I asked if he meant lim log y \lim \log y , which would have given us the exponent.

FYI To type Latex here, we use the brackets \ ( \ ) \backslash ( \quad \backslash ) instead of dollar signs. I've edited your comment accordingly.

Calvin Lin Staff - 2 years, 3 months ago

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Oh, awesome. Thanks!

J P - 2 years, 3 months ago
Ethan Lu
Nov 20, 2014

Take the natural log of both sides. Thus k=lim(n->infinity) ln(n)/n By L'Hospital's, k=lim(n->infinity) of (1/n)/1)=0 Thus, ln(K^2+1)=ln(1)=0

How could you apply the natural log directly on both sides?

Thaddeus June - 4 years, 4 months ago

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