x 2 − x 4 + x 6 − x 8 + x 1 0 x 2 + x 4 + x 6 + x 8 + x 1 0 = x 3 − x 5 + x 7 − x 9 + x 1 1 x 3 + x 5 + x 7 + x 9 + x 1 1
Does the equation above hold true for all real x = 0 ?
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the way the minus signs are positioned (before odd only or even only terms, depending on the number of x's factored out) makes it clear there are no real zeros.
Exactly! +1
@Abhay Kumar I expected this solution. It is quite simpler than putting x = 1 and it proves it true for ALL real values of x except 0 .
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Could it be said they are equal when evaluated at positive or negative x, which proven by Descartes' Rule of Signs, make the denominators equal to zero? I think this might be a contradiction. It would be different if it said "integers, but not zero."
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Not quite. To pursue this approach, we could cross multiply and see that we have a polynomial of degree at most 21, hence if we were to check for 22 distinct values and they were equal, then yes this would tell us that these rational functions are equal to each other.
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@Calvin Lin – That makes sense. The problem was easier than I thought. Thank you.
How does putting x = 1 prove that it is true for all other values?
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It does not prove that, which is exactly what I was trying to explain Abhay Kumar. Please see the comments to his solution down.
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@Nihar Mahajan – Ah ic. When you said "It is quite simpler than X", I expected "X" to have been a proper alternative solution.
Exactly !! I did same
Don't we need to prove that the equation is defined for all values of x = 0 , that is:
the denominator 1 − x 2 + x 4 − x 6 + x 8 never equals to 0 ?
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Good point and let me prove that it can never be 0.Moving terms you have this. x^8-x^6+x^4-x^2+1. simplifying the x's, you can have (x^4+1)(x^4-x^2)+1. you cant have x^4,and x^2 be negative , because they have an even power. So the denominator is always positive. Also to factor it to (x^4+1)(x^4-x^2)+1. i simply paired the highest powers together and the lowest, with the fist pair you can do x^4(x^4-x^2), then just add in the second pair
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Your proof is invalid. x 4 ≥ 0 and x 2 ≥ 0 , but that does not imply that x 4 − x 2 ≥ 0 . Take, for example,
x = 0 . 1 ⟹ x 4 − x 2 = 0 . 0 0 0 1 − 0 . 0 1 = − 0 . 0 0 9 9 < 0
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@Hung Woei Neoh – There is a simple 1-line proof. Hint: What happens when x 2 ≥ 1 ? What happens when 0 < x 2 < 1 ?
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@Calvin Lin – I did thought of proving it that way, but is that really sufficient?
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@Hung Woei Neoh – It is sufficient if we are able to show that 1 − x 2 + x 4 − x 6 + x 8 > 0 for all x .
Since I don't know how you are planning on doing it, I do not know if your way is sufficient. However, there does exist a sufficient way, using the idea that I proposed.
Yes, indeed that is a concern. My proof: Because it is even, we only need to worry about x >=0. Rewrite 1 - x^2 + x^4 - x^6 + x^8 = x^4 + (1 - x)^2 (1 + x) (1 + x + x^2 + x^3 + x^4 + x^5) > 0 for x >= 0.
I don't see the purpose of showing it never zero.
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Nobody has commented to me in 6 months, for this problem, appreciate it:).
RHS = x 3 − x 5 + x 7 − x 9 + x 1 1 x 3 + x 5 + x 7 + x 9 + x 1 1 = x ( x 2 − x 4 + x 6 − x 8 + x 1 0 ) x ( x 2 + x 4 + x 6 + x 8 + x 1 0 )
x ( x 2 − x 4 + x 6 − x 8 + x 1 0 ) x ( x 2 + x 4 + x 6 + x 8 + x 1 0 ) = x 2 − x 4 + x 6 − x 8 + x 1 0 x 2 + x 4 + x 6 + x 8 + x 1 0
⇒ x 3 − x 5 + x 7 − x 9 + x 1 1 x 2 + x 4 + x 6 + x 8 + x 1 0 = x 2 − x 4 + x 6 − x 8 + x 1 0 x 2 + x 4 + x 6 + x 8 + x 1 0 , which is always true for non zero numbers.
Little bit simpler (probably simplest :P). +0!.
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P.S. Who except a Delhiite would you expect to know about Odd and Even? ;)
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Odd-Even. Perfectly suited title these days.
Typo: Last line, the left denominator
x 2 − x 4 + x 6 − x 8 + x 1 0 should be there instead
x 2 − x 4 + x 6 − x 8 + x 1 0 x 2 + x 4 + x 6 + x 8 + x 1 0 = x 3 − x 5 + x 7 − x 9 + x 1 1 x 3 + x 5 + x 7 + x 9 + x 1 1 x 2 ( 1 − x 2 + x 4 − x 6 + x 8 ) x 2 ( 1 + x 2 + x 4 + x 6 + x 8 ) = x 3 ( 1 − x 2 + x 4 − x 6 + x 8 ) x 3 ( 1 + x 2 + x 4 + x 6 + x 8 )
Since x = 0 , x 2 = 0 , x 3 = 0 . This means that we can cancel out x 2 and x 3 , which gives us
1 − x 2 + x 4 − x 6 + x 8 1 + x 2 + x 4 + x 6 + x 8 = 1 − x 2 + x 4 − x 6 + x 8 1 + x 2 + x 4 + x 6 + x 8
Obviously, LHS and RHS are the same, therefore the equation should hold for all real x = 0 . However, for a more complete proof, we should show that the denominator 1 − x 2 + x 4 − x 6 + x 8 = 0 for all x = 0 .
There are three methods to do this.
Method 1 (as suggested by @Calvin Lin )
Note that for all real values of x = 0 , x 2 > 0 , x 4 > 0 , x 6 > 0 , x 8 > 0
Now, if x ≥ 1 or x ≤ − 1 , x 2 ≥ 1 , x 8 ≥ x 6 ≥ x 4 ≥ x 2
This implies that x 8 − x 6 ≥ 0 , x 4 − x 2 ≥ 0 . Therefore,
x 8 − x 6 + x 4 − x 2 + 1 ≥ 1 , x 2 ≥ 1
If − 1 < x < 1 , 0 < x 2 < 1 , x 8 < x 6 < x 4 < x 2
This implies that 1 − x 2 > 0 , x 4 − x 6 > 0 . Therefore,
1 − x 2 + x 4 − x 6 + x 8 > 0 , 0 < x 2 < 1
From here, we can see that the denominator > 0 for all real x = 0
Method 2 (my preferred method)
We let y = x 2 . This yields a quartic function
1 − y + y 2 − y 3 + y 4
We can then determine the roots of this function with the quartic discriminant :
Δ = 2 5 6 − 1 9 2 − 1 2 8 + 1 4 4 − 2 7 + 1 4 4 − 6 − 8 0 + 1 8 + 1 6 − 4 − 2 7 + 1 8 − 4 − 4 + 1 = 1 2 5 > 0 P = 8 − 3 = 5 > 0 D = 6 4 − 1 6 + 1 6 − 1 6 − 3 = 4 5 > 0
Δ > 0 , P > 0 , D > 0 , therefore the quartic function has no real roots.
There are no real roots of y , therefore no real x 2 satisfies 1 − x 2 + x 4 − x 6 + x 8 = 0 , which also implies that the denominator = 0 for all real x = 0
Method 3 (graphical/calculus)
For an eighth degree polynomial with a positive leading coefficient, both ends of the graph head towards + ∞
From here, we can deduce that if all the minimum points of the graph have a positive y -coordinate, we can say that the graph of the polynomial never intersects the x -axis.
We can let f ( x ) = 1 − x 2 + x 4 − x 6 + x 8 , and find the values of x that satisfy f ′ ( x ) = 0
f ′ ( x ) = 8 x 7 − 6 x 5 + 4 x 3 − 2 x 8 x 7 − 6 x 5 + 4 x 3 − 2 x = 0 2 x ( 4 x 6 − 3 x 4 + 2 x 2 − 1 ) = 0 x = 0 , 4 x 6 − 3 x 4 + 2 x 2 − 1 = 0
For the second factor, you can let z = x 2 and solve the cubic polynomial 4 z 3 − 3 z 2 + 2 z − 1 = 0 . This method is very tedious without a calculator, but it's doable.
You should get 3 points, two minimum with a positive y -coordinate, and a maximum point
x 2 − x 4 + x 6 − x 8 + x 1 0 x 2 + x 4 + x 6 + x 8 + x 1 0 ( x 2 + x 6 + x 1 0 ) − ( x 4 + x 8 ) ( x 2 + x 6 + x 1 0 ) + ( x 4 + x 8 ) ( x 2 + x 6 + x 1 0 ) + ( x 4 + x 8 ) − ( x 2 + x 6 + x 1 0 ) + ( x 4 + x 8 ) ( x 2 + x 6 + x 1 0 ) + ( x 4 + x 8 ) + ( x 2 + x 6 + x 1 0 ) − ( x 4 + x 8 ) 2 ( x 4 + x 8 ) 2 ( x 2 + x 6 + x 1 0 ) x ( x 4 + x 8 ) x ( x 2 + x 6 + x 1 0 ) ( x 5 + x 9 ) ( x 3 + x 7 + x 1 1 ) ( x 3 + x 7 + x 1 1 ) + ( x 5 + x 9 ) − ( x 3 + x 7 + x 1 1 ) + ( x 5 + x 9 ) ( x 3 + x 7 + x 1 1 ) + ( x 5 + x 9 ) + ( x 3 + x 7 + x 1 1 ) − ( x 5 + x 9 ) 2 ( x 5 + x 9 ) 2 ( x 3 + x 7 + x 1 1 ) ( x 5 + x 9 ) ( x 3 + x 7 + x 1 1 ) From 1 and 2 : − x 2 − x 4 + x 6 − x 8 + x 1 0 x 2 + x 4 + x 6 + x 8 + x 1 0 = y ( s a y ) → 1 = 1 y = y − 1 y + 1 ( By componendo and dividendo ) = y − 1 y + 1 = y − 1 y + 1 ( Multiplying and dividing x in numerator and denominator ) = y − 1 y + 1 = y + 1 − y + 1 y + 1 + y − 1 ( By componendo and dividendo ) = 2 2 y = y → 2 = x 3 − x 5 + x 7 − x 8 9 + x 1 1 x 3 + x 5 + x 7 + x 9 + x 1 1
Hence, proved
I think the last four rows are wrong
Why does every one do complicated stuff. Is it not enough to multiply the left side with x/x to get the right side?
x 2 − x 4 + x 6 − x 8 + x 1 0 x 2 + x 4 + x 6 + x 8 + x 1 0 = x 3 − x 5 + x 7 − x 9 + x 1 1 x 3 + x 5 + x 7 + x 9 + x 1 1
Let's look at the two sides of the equality separately. Beginning with the left hand side:
x 2 − x 4 + x 6 − x 8 + x 1 0 x 2 + x 4 + x 6 + x 8 + x 1 0
We can factor x 2 out of both the numerator and the denominator:
x 2 ( 1 − x 2 + x 4 − x 6 + x 8 ) x 2 ( 1 + x 2 + x 4 + x 6 + x 8 )
x 2 ( 1 − x 2 + x 4 − x 6 + x 8 ) x 2 ( 1 + x 2 + x 4 + x 6 + x 8 )
1 − x 2 + x 4 − x 6 + x 8 1 + x 2 + x 4 + x 6 + x 8
Cool! Let's do the right hand side now:
x 3 − x 5 + x 7 − x 9 + x 1 1 x 3 + x 5 + x 7 + x 9 + x 1 1
We can factor out x 3 :
x 3 ( 1 − x 2 + x 4 − x 6 + x 8 ) x 3 ( 1 + x 2 + x 4 + x 6 + x 8 )
x 3 ( 1 − x 2 + x 4 − x 6 + x 8 ) x 3 ( 1 + x 2 + x 4 + x 6 + x 8 )
1 − x 2 + x 4 − x 6 + x 8 1 + x 2 + x 4 + x 6 + x 8
So both sides of the expression are equivalent. Therefore the equation holds true for all x = 0 .
we also can check it by putting x=1, then satisfied the equation. so equation is true..
No, it has to be proved for all not zero real numbers, not only one.
(x²+x⁴+x^6+x^8+x^10)/(x²-x⁴+x^6-x^8+x^10)*x/x=(x³+x^5+x^7+x^9+x^11)/(x³-x^5+x^7-x^9+x^11)
(for any x≠0, x/x=1. So multipling any of the sides by x/x shouldn't change the equation. Multipling the left side of the equation by x/x gives you the right side of the equation, so it is true to any x≠0
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Relevant wiki: Multiplying and Dividing Monomials
x 2 ( 1 − x 2 + x 4 − x 6 + x 8 ) x 2 ( 1 + x 2 + x 4 + x 6 + x 8 ) = x 3 ( 1 − x 2 + x 4 − x 6 + x 8 ) x 3 ( 1 + x 2 + x 4 + x 6 + x 8 )
We see that both the sides are identical ∀ x ∈ R − { 0 } and hence result hold for all non zero real x.