Suppose a k = ζ ( 2 k ) , where ζ is the Riemann zeta function. What is the value of the sum k = 1 ∑ ∞ k ζ ( 2 k ) − 1 ?
Details and assumptions
The Riemann zeta function ζ ( s ) is defined as n = 1 ∑ ∞ n − s .
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Typo for line 5 i = 1 ∑ ∞ j 2 i × i 1 :D
i could not get your 2nd and 3rd step....would u plz explain
Penjelasan yang sangat bagus Zanu! :)
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Write Riemann-zeta function ζ ( 2 k ) as ζ ( 2 k ) = n = 1 ∑ ∞ n 2 k 1 = 1 2 k 1 + 2 2 k 1 + 3 2 k 1 + ⋯ = 1 + 2 2 k 1 + 3 2 k 1 + ⋯ Then, ζ ( 2 k ) − 1 = n = 1 ∑ ∞ n 2 k 1 − 1 = ( 1 + 2 2 k 1 + 3 2 k 1 + ⋯ ) − 1 = 2 2 k 1 + 3 2 k 1 + 4 2 k 1 + ⋯ = n = 2 ∑ ∞ n 2 k 1 Hence, k = 1 ∑ ∞ k ζ ( 2 k ) − 1 = k = 1 ∑ ∞ k 1 ( ζ ( 2 k ) − 1 ) = k = 1 ∑ ∞ k 1 n = 2 ∑ ∞ n 2 k 1 = k = 1 ∑ ∞ n = 2 ∑ ∞ k ⋅ n 2 k 1 Both part are interchangeable. You may also treat sum notation as integral. I hope this help Pranav. :)
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Beautifully done Tunk-Fey Ariawan, thanks a lot! :)
But I am not sure about your last statement, what do you mean by "treat sum notation as integral"? Can you please explain some more on this? Thanks!
Continuing with the Pebrudal's solution, he writes:
k = 1 ∑ ∞ k ζ ( 2 k ) − 1 = − n = 2 ∑ ∞ ln ( 1 − n 2 1 )
..but
− n = 2 ∑ ∞ ln ( 1 − n 2 1 ) = n = 2 ∑ ∞ i = 1 ∑ ∞ n 2 × i 1
and this is not what Pebrudal showed in his first step.
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@Pranav Arora – I think he made a bit of typo. He should write Maclaurin series of natural logarithm like this: − ln ( 1 − c ) = i = 1 ∑ ∞ i c i for ∣ c ∣ < 1 . Thus, if I continue my approach, it turns out to be k = 1 ∑ ∞ n = 2 ∑ ∞ k ⋅ n 2 k 1 = n = 2 ∑ ∞ k = 1 ∑ ∞ k ( n 2 1 ) k = − n = 2 ∑ ∞ ln ( 1 − n 2 1 ) . For my statement "treat sum notation as integral", I mean the sum notation can be interchanged like integral notation. I think you've already known that. To make clearer, take a look this example: ∫ x = a b ∫ y = c d f ( x , y ) d y d x = ∫ y = c d ∫ x = a b f ( x , y ) d x d y , as well as k = 1 ∑ ∞ n = 2 ∑ ∞ k ⋅ n 2 k 1 = n = 2 ∑ ∞ k = 1 ∑ ∞ k ( n 2 1 ) k . Sorry for my terrible explanation because I'm not that good on math theory. The way I solve math problems only use intuitive approach.
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@Tunk-Fey Ariawan – Excellent explanation Tunk! I should have been careful about the expansion of ln(1-x). :)
This was a very nice problem.
is there any proof for line 2? as far as i know the right hand side has no limit..
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1 − x 1 = 1 + x + x 2 + x 3 + . . . , where ∣ x ∣ < 1
Two side we integration on interval 0 < x < c where this form satisfy if 0 < c < 1 ,
And the result:
− l n ( 1 − c ) = c + 2 1 c + 3 1 c 2 + . . .
Since 0 < j 2 1 < 1 , We can change c = j 2 1 .
So, right hand side is converges if |c|<1 and have limit.
I used some identitities to get there.
k = 1 ∑ ∞ k ζ ( 2 k ) − 1 =
2 k = 1 ∑ ∞ 2 k ζ ( 2 k ) − 1
Now
k = 1 ∑ ∞ 2 k ζ ( 2 k ) − 1 = k = 2 ∑ ∞ k ζ ( k ) − 1 − k = 2 ∑ ∞ 2 k − 1 ζ ( 2 k − 1 ) − 1 .
This gives :
2 k = 1 ∑ ∞ 2 k ζ ( 2 k ) − 1 =
k = 2 ∑ ∞ k ζ ( k ) − 1 + k = 1 ∑ ∞ 2 k ζ ( 2 k ) − 1 − k = 2 ∑ ∞ 2 k − 1 ζ ( 2 k − 1 ) − 1 =
k = 2 ∑ ∞ k ζ ( k ) − 1 + k = 2 ∑ ∞ ( − 1 ) k k ζ ( k ) − 1 =
1 − γ + l n ( 2 ) + γ − 1 = , using two identities from the series related to the Euler–Mascheroni constant .
l n ( 2 ) .
Hence :
k = 1 ∑ ∞ k ζ ( 2 k ) − 1 = l n ( 2 ) .
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First step: k = 1 ∑ ∞ k ζ ( 2 k ) − 1 = i = 2 ∑ ∞ j = 1 ∑ ∞ j × i 2 j 1
Not that:
∫ 0 c 1 − x 1 d x = − ln ( 1 − c ) = i = 1 ∑ ∞ i c
If replace c = j 2 1
i = 2 ∑ ∞ j 2 × i 1 = − ln ( 1 − j 2 1 )
k = 1 ∑ ∞ k ζ ( 2 k ) − 1 = − n = 2 ∑ ∞ ln ( 1 − n 2 1 ) = − ln ( n = 2 ∏ ∞ ( 1 − n 2 1 ) )
n = 2 ∏ ∞ ( 1 − n 2 1 ) = n = 2 ∏ ∞ ( 1 − n 1 ) × n = 2 ∏ ∞ ( 1 + n 1 ) = 2 1
So, k = 1 ∑ ∞ k ζ ( 2 k ) − 1 = ln ( 2 )
The answer is 0 . 6 9 3