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Simple standard approach.
This is incomplete. Your penultimate step is not rigorous. You should show that x → 0 lim x sin x 1 = 0 by Squeeze theorem , and to do so, it is better to start with a substitution of y = x 1 , which will simplify your working greatly because you won't be dealing with indeterminate forms anymore.
I don't understand why 0.0005?? Shouldnt we use Taylor/McLaurin developements to solve it? For x->0: sin (1/x) ~ 1/x+o (x^2) sin (x) ~ x+o (x^2) So limit x->0 of f (x)=1 Why do we get 0.00000???
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When x → 0 , sin x → x . But you're considering when x → 0 , sin ( x 1 ) → x 1 which is wrong. If you are considering that sin ( x 1 ) → x 1 , then x 1 should tend to 0 , not x .
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got it! Thanks!!!
When x tend to 0, Sen(x) tend to 0 too.
I eont understand, why it was stated that answer was to be given in decimals
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Why not? All integers are decimals too.
This reduces random guessing to a slight extent. I implement if for "easily guessed" answers.
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Ok, thank you. I will surely employ it in my next question.
When I graphed the equation I got a two sided limit which was nearly equal to -0.005
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Did you graph it manually or using a calculation aid? In the case of the latter, do you know what it's limitations are?
Here is a Wolfram plot of the graph between − 0 . 0 0 1 ≤ x ≤ 0 . 0 0 1 . Even though we cannot simply conclude that the limit is not 0, it's clear that the limit is not -0.005.
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Well I used desmos and now I found out where was my mistake, BTW thanks for your comment
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@Department 8 – Great! When you use an external calculation aid, you have to be aware of it's limitations before arguing that it's conclusions are correct. Especially in cases with rounding error or dividing by (close to) zero.
Let u = x 1 as x → 0 , u → ∞
So x → 0 lim sin x x 2 sin x 1 = u → ∞ lim sin u 1 u 2 1 sin u = u → ∞ lim sin u 1 u 1 u sin u = u → ∞ lim u sin u × u → ∞ lim sin u 1 u 1
We know that , − 1 ≤ sin u ≤ 1 ⇔ u − 1 ≤ u 1 sin u ≤ u 1 ⇔ u → ∞ lim u − 1 ≤ u → ∞ lim u sin u ≤ u → ∞ lim u 1
As u → ∞ , u 1 → 0 so by sandwish theorem u → ∞ lim u sin u = 0
Also u → ∞ lim sin u 1 u 1 = u 1 → 0 lim sin u 1 u 1 = w → 0 lim sin w − sin ( 0 ) w − 0 = d w d ( sin w ) w = 0 1 = cos 0 1 = 1
Hence x → 0 lim sin x x 2 sin x 1 = 1 × 0 = 0
Sin(1/x)/sin(x) = "something"
So, it's the limit for x^2 × "something"
Substitute 0 in for x and you end up multiplying "something" by zero.
Works for me.
consider this solution : (x/sinx)*(sin(1/x)/(1/x))=1
When x → 0 , sin x → x . But you're considering when x → 0 , sin ( x 1 ) → x 1 , which is wrong. If you are considering that sin ( x 1 ) → x 1 , then x 1 should tend to 0 , not x .
Isn't this supposed to be 1?
The exposed solution is right.. Note this: if it was the lim (x->infinite) x* sin(1/x) that should be the same as lim (1/x ->0 ) sin(1/x)/(1/x) ..Then it would be 1.. Cheers
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When x → 0 , sin x → x . But you're considering when x → 0 , sin ( x 1 ) → x 1 which is wrong. If you are considering that sin ( x 1 ) → x 1 , then x 1 should tend to 0 , not x .
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Since we know that x → 0 lim sin x x = 1 , therefore \[ \begin{array}{} \displaystyle \lim_{x\to0} \left( \dfrac{ x^2 \sin \frac1x } {\sin x} \right) & = \displaystyle \lim_{x\to0} \left( x \cdot \sin \frac1x \right) \\ & = \displaystyle \lim_{x\to 0} \left( x \cdot \{ \text{Some value belonging to [-1,1]} \} \right) \\ & = 0. \square \end{array} \]