One of three of a kind - Part (2)

Calculus Level 5

k = 1 μ ( k ) k ln ( 1 x k ) \large \sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{\mu(k)}k \ln(1 - x^k)

For 0 < x < 1 0<x<1 , find the closed form for the series above.

Note

μ ( n ) \mu(n) denote the Möbius Function:

μ ( n ) = { 0 if n has more repeated prime factors 1 if n = 1 ( 1 ) n if n is a product of k distinct primes \mu(n) = \begin{cases} 0 & \quad & \text{ if } n \text{ has more repeated prime factors} \\ 1 & \quad & \text{ if } n =1 \\ (-1)^n & \quad & \text{ if } n \text{ is a product of } k \text{ distinct primes} \end{cases}

Try part 1 and part 3

( x + 1 ) 2 x + 2 \frac{(x+1)^2}{x+2} ln ( ln ( x ) ) \ln( \ln(x)) x -x x + 1 x \frac{x+1}{x} x 2 3 x^\frac{2}{3}

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1 solution

Kartik Sharma
Oct 22, 2015

So, this is our problem -

k = 1 μ ( k ) k ln ( 1 x k ) \displaystyle \sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{\mu(k)}k \ln(1 - x^k)

k = 1 μ ( k ) k m = 1 x k m m \displaystyle - \sum_{k=1}^{\infty}{\frac{\mu(k)}{k} \sum_{m=1}^{\infty}{\frac{x^{km}}{m}}}

We will just use Dirichlet Convolution or just transforming the sum to the variable k m = n km = n ,

n = 1 k n μ ( k ) k x n n \displaystyle - \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}{\sum_{k|n}{\frac{\mu(k)}{k}} \frac{x^n}{n}}

Now, we know that μ ( n ) \mu(n) is just the Mobius Function i.e. sum of primitive nth roots of unity. It is just

= 1 if n is a square-free positive integer with even prime factors = 1 \text{if n is a square-free positive integer with even prime factors}

= 1 if n is a square-free positive integer with odd prime factors = -1 \text{if n is a square-free positive integer with odd prime factors}

= 0 if it is a square number = 0 \text{if it is a square number}

Hence, the sum we have used is just

= 1 if n=1 = 1 \text{if n=1}

= 0 if n>1 = 0 \text{if n>1}

As a result,

n = 1 k n μ ( k ) k x n n = x 1 1 + 0 = x \displaystyle - \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}{\sum_{k|n}{\frac{\mu(k)}{k}} \frac{x^n}{n}} = - \frac{x^1}{1} + 0 = -x

I think you should specify what is μ ( n ) \mu(n) . It is not that famous a function.

Kartik Sharma - 5 years, 7 months ago

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@Kartik Sharma Can you post a non-English solution here haha! thanks

Possibly by Mellin transfrom or contour or Laplace or ...

Pi Han Goh - 5 years, 7 months ago

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Give me some time. I am thinking over it as I essentially solved the English way(as Keshore did).

Kartik Sharma - 5 years, 7 months ago

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@Kartik Sharma I'm posting a pure IBP solution quite some time soon. Looking forward to your solution!

Pi Han Goh - 5 years, 7 months ago

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@Pi Han Goh Have a look at my comment on Keshore's solution. You might disagree.

Kartik Sharma - 5 years, 7 months ago

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@Kartik Sharma I always prefer to find the solution which requires the least prerequisites.

But I'm always interested to learn non-English solutions as well!

Pi Han Goh - 5 years, 7 months ago

Wow great solution. I was thinking of Lambert Series but I got stuck!

Is this the only approach?

Pi Han Goh - 5 years, 7 months ago

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I used lambert series. Let me show you how.

f ( x ) = k = 1 μ ( k ) k ln ( 1 x k ) f(x)= \large \sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{\mu(k)}k \ln(1 - x^k)

Take the derivative with respect to x and use lambert series to get:

f ( x ) = 1 x k = 1 μ ( k ) x k 1 x k = 1 x × x = 1 f'(x)=-\frac{1}{x}\large \sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{\mu(k)x^{k}}{ 1 - x^k}=-\frac{1}{x} \times x=-1

Therefore f ( x ) = x + c f(x)=-x+c and we can find that c = 0 c=0 by evaluating at x = 0 x=0

I did part 1 the same way.

Isaac Buckley - 5 years, 7 months ago

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Oh my god!!! Why did I fail to differentiate???!?!? Thank you!

Pi Han Goh - 5 years, 7 months ago

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@Pi Han Goh Anytime, I really like this method. It takes no effort at all.

Isaac Buckley - 5 years, 7 months ago

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