One of three of a kind - Part (1)

Calculus Level 5

k = 1 ϕ ( k ) k ln ( 1 x k ) \large \sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{\phi(k)}k \ln(1 - x^k)

Let ϕ ( k ) \phi(k) denotes Euler's Totient Function .

For 0 < x < 1 0<x<1 , find the closed form for the series above.


Try part 2 and part 3
x x x 1 x \frac{-x}{1-x} 1 1 e \frac{1}{1-e} x 2 1 x \frac{-x^2}{1-x} x ( 1 x ) 2 \frac{-x}{(1-x)^2}

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2 solutions

Kartik Sharma
Oct 21, 2015

k = 1 ϕ ( k ) k ln ( 1 x k ) = k = 1 ϕ ( k ) k ( ln ( 1 x k ) ) \displaystyle \sum_{k=1}^{\infty}{\frac{\phi(k)}{k} \ln(1-x^k)} = - \sum_{k=1}^{\infty}{\frac{\phi(k)}{k} (-\ln(1-x^k))}

k = 1 ϕ ( k ) k m = 1 x k m m \displaystyle - \sum_{k=1}^{\infty}{\frac{\phi(k)}{k} \sum_{m=1}^{\infty}{\frac{x^{km}}{m}}}

Now, you can just use Dirichlet series by utilizing Dirichlet convolution. But we'll do this in a beginner's way. We'll write our series in the following way:

n = 1 a n ϕ ( a ) a m x n \displaystyle - \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}{\sum_{a|n}{\frac{\phi(a)}{am}} x^n}

where a m = n am = n so it simply becomes

n = 1 a n ϕ ( a ) x n n \displaystyle - \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}{\sum_{a|n}{\phi(a)} \frac{x^n}{n}}

Now, using Gauss' argument that a n ϕ ( a ) = n \displaystyle \sum_{a|n}{\phi(a)} = n [will not prove here]

= n = 1 x n = x 1 x \displaystyle = - \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}{x^n} = \frac{-x}{1-x}

Great! Well done! Part (2) and (3) will follow in the next days.

Alisa Meier - 5 years, 7 months ago

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Ah, I can't wait. Summations involving arithmetical functions are always a fun to solve. Gauss and Euler(Dirichlet too) have made them so much interesting, I thank those great souls.

Kartik Sharma - 5 years, 7 months ago

Do you have the proof for Gauss' argument?

And can you type the non-English (Dirichlet convolution) solution as well?

Pi Han Goh - 5 years, 7 months ago

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That is a classical formula, which can be proved in the following simple way: consider the rational numbers with denominator n and numerator ranging from 1 to n.When reducing them, we get exactly φ ( d ) \varphi(d) numbers with denominator d|n.This is true, because exactly φ ( d ) \varphi(d) of the numbers 1 d , 2 d , . . . , d d \frac{1}{d},\frac{2}{d},...,\frac{d}{d} are reduced.Since every reduced fraction is uniquely represented, this shows that d n φ ( d ) = n \displaystyle \sum_{d|n}^{}\varphi (d)=n

Bogdan Simeonov - 5 years, 7 months ago

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Ohhh! That simple? Thanks!

Pi Han Goh - 5 years, 7 months ago

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@Pi Han Goh No problem :D.There are of course proofs that offer more insight (one can prove it also by using the identity Φ n ( x ) = d n Φ d ( x ) \displaystyle\Phi_n(x)=\prod_{d|n} \Phi_d (x) )

Bogdan Simeonov - 5 years, 7 months ago

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@Bogdan Simeonov I haven't mastered cyclotomic polynomials so I'm a little fuzzy in it. Thanks again!

I do miss your questions and answers though. Hope you can post some sometime soon.

Pi Han Goh - 5 years, 7 months ago

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@Pi Han Goh Well, maybe I will get back to it sometime.Recently I got pretty interested in abstract algebra so maybe brilliant could expand to more advanced topics.For now I browse through math.stackexchange sometimes, because there's a myriad of great problems (and really smart people) there .

Bogdan Simeonov - 5 years, 7 months ago
Isaac Buckley
Nov 10, 2015

Let f ( x ) = k = 1 ϕ ( k ) k ln ( 1 x k ) \large f(x)=\sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{\phi(k)}k \ln(1 - x^k) This implies f ( x ) = k = 1 ϕ ( k ) k k x k 1 1 x k = 1 x k = 1 ϕ ( k ) x k 1 x k \large f'(x)=\sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{\phi(k)}{k}\frac{-kx^{k-1}}{ 1 - x^k}=-\frac{1}{x} \sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{\phi(k)x^{k}}{1 - x^k} Using Lambert series which states for x < 1 |x|<1 k = 1 ϕ ( k ) x k 1 x k = x ( 1 x ) 2 \large \sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{\phi(k)x^{k}}{1 - x^k}= \frac{x}{(1-x)^2} Thus f ( x ) = 1 ( 1 x ) 2 f ( x ) = 1 1 x + C \large f'(x)=-\frac{1}{(1-x)^2}\implies f(x)=-\frac{1}{1-x}+C We evaluate C C by plugging in x = 0 x=0 to get C = 1 C=1 and finally f ( x ) = 1 1 x + 1 = x 1 x \large f(x)=-\frac{1}{1-x}+1=\boxed{\frac{-x}{1-x}}

Moderator note:

Great observation!

put x=0 to find C=1

The problem asks 0<x<1.

Aareyan Manzoor - 5 years, 4 months ago

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I did find a closed form for 0 < x < 1 0<x<1 but the series is still valid for x = 0 x=0 .

Why do you see subbing x = 0 x=0 as a problem?

Isaac Buckley - 5 years, 4 months ago

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