For any positive integer n , the Euler's totient function ϕ ( n ) is defined as the number of integers from 1 to n that are coprime to n . We will call a positive integer m infinitely Euler, if there exists an infinite sequence of positive integers m 1 , m 2 , m 3 , . . . , such that m 1 = m and m i = ϕ ( m i + 1 ) for all i ≥ 1 . How many positive integers less than 1 0 0 0 are infinitely Euler?
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Perfect!
Hi C L. My solution is mostly the same as yours, except at the end ... your proof that the p i cannot all be prime is a lot shorter than my proof of it. That would be great of course, except that I believe you are mistaken in saying that 3 ∣ p i + 2 if p i ≡ 2 m o d 3 . Would you agree?
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P.S. Here's my method for that part: if the sequence is
p , 2 p + 1 , 4 p + 3 , . . . , 2 k ( p + 1 ) − 1 , . . .
(where p = p N + 2 is an odd prime) then 2 p − 1 ( p + 1 ) − 1 is divisible by p and therefore not prime.
Agreed. Can't believe I made this error.
Since φ ( 2 a ) = 2 a − 1 for any integer a ≥ 1 , we deduce that 2 a is infinitely Euler for any integer a ≥ 0 , since we can set m j = 2 a + j − 1 j ≥ 1 . Since φ ( 2 a 3 b ) = 2 a 3 b − 1 for any integers a , b ≥ 1 , we deduce that 2 a 3 b is infinitely Euler for all integers a , b ≥ 1 , since we can set m j = 2 a 3 b + j − 1 j ≥ 1 . I claim that all infinitely Euler numbers are of one of these two forms. Suppose instead that m is infinitely Euler, but that m is not of one of these two types. We can find integers m j for all j ≥ 1 such that m 1 = m and m j = φ ( m j + 1 ) for all j ≥ 1 . If any of the integers m j (which must themselves be infinitely Euler) were of either of the two types, then so would m be, so we deduce that none of the integers m j are of either of the two types. Note that m j is even for all j ≥ 1 . Let a j ≥ 1 be the index of 2 in m j , so that m j = 2 a j μ j for all j ≥ 1 , where a j ≥ 1 and μ j ≥ 3 is odd, but not equal to a power of 3 . Then we deduce that 2 a j μ j = m j = φ ( m j + 1 ) = 2 a j + 1 − 1 φ ( μ j + 1 ) Since φ ( μ j + 1 ) is even, we deduce that a j ≥ a j + 1 for all j ≥ 1 .
Thus ( a j ) j is a decreasing sequence of positive integers, and hence there must exist some J ≥ 1 such that a j = a J for all j ≥ J . This implies that φ ( μ j + 1 ) = 2 μ j for all j ≥ J . For any j ≥ J + 1 , φ ( μ j ) has just one factor of 2 , and so μ j must be a power p j x j of a single odd prime p j , where p j ≡ 3 modulo 4 . Since μ j is not a power of 3 , we deduce that p j > 3 , and hence p j ≥ 7 . Now 2 p j x j = 2 μ j = φ ( μ j + 1 ) = p j + 1 x j + 1 − 1 ( p j + 1 − 1 ) j ≥ J + 1 Now 2 1 ( p j + 1 − 1 ) is odd and at least 3 , and so has a prime factor which must be distinct from p j + 1 . Since 2 p j x j has exactly one odd prime factor, we deduce that x j + 1 = 1 for all j ≥ J + 1 , and that p j + 1 = 1 + 2 p j x j for all j ≥ J + 1 . Hence we deduce that p j + 1 = 1 + 2 p j for all j ≥ J + 2 . Thus we deduce that p J + 2 + k = 2 k ( p J + 2 + 1 ) − 1 for all k ≥ 0 . But if k ≥ 1 is such that 2 k ≡ 1 modulo p J + 2 , we deduce that p J + 2 divides p J + k + 2 . But p J + k + 2 is clearly bigger than p J + 2 . We have reached a contradiction, and hence there are no infinitely Euler numbers except those of the two types given above.
There are 3 4 numbers of these two forms between 1 and 1 0 0 0 , namely 1 6 7 2 3 2 4 2 1 2 1 4 4 6 4 8 4 2 4 2 8 8 4 8 6 8 4 8 5 7 6 9 7 2 1 6 9 6 5 4 3 2 1 9 2 1 0 8 6 4 3 8 4 2 1 6 1 2 8 7 6 8 4 3 2 2 5 6 1 8 8 6 4 5 1 2 3 6 1 6 2
Perfect!
The first number on the second row should be 6. :)
The rules for the totient function are: ϕ ( m n ) ϕ ( p a ) = ϕ ( m ) ϕ ( n ) for m,n coprime = p a − 1 ( p − 1 ) for p prime, a > 0
From this we get: ϕ ( 2 a ) = 2 a − 1 , for a ≥ 0 therefore 2 a is infinitely Euler. Also,
ϕ ( 2 a 3 b ) = 2 a 3 b − 1 , for a ≥ 0 , b ≥ 1 therefore 2 a 3 b is infinitely Euler.
Other numbers must include a power of a higher prime. For example consider m 1 = 2 a 5 In order for ϕ ( x ) to contain a factor of 5 , we see from the rules given above that x must contain a factor of 5 2 . However, if m 2 = 2 a 5 b n for some n coprime to 2 , 5 , then ϕ ( m 2 ) = 2 a + 1 5 b − 1 ϕ ( n ) So m 1 has more factors of 2 than m 2 . By induction then, m 1 cannot be infinitely Euler as eventually we must run out of factors of 2 , but 2 ∣ ϕ ( n ) for all n > 1 .
Similarly, if m 1 contains a factor of 7 b then m 2 must contain a factor of 7 b + 1 . But ϕ ( 7 b + 1 ) = 2 ⋅ 3 ⋅ 7 b . By similar reasoning to the previous case, m 1 must have a greater number of factors of 2 and 3 combined than m 2 does, so it cannot be infinitely Euler.
All odd primes greater than 3 must have p − 1 being a product of at least two smaller primes, so the same reasoning as the above cases applies. The multiplicative rule lets us break down more complicated cases into supersets of the above cases. So there are actually no more infinitely Euler numbers.
Enumerating the cases given above: 1 2 , 6 , 1 8 , 5 4 , 1 6 2 , 4 8 6 4 , 1 2 , 3 6 , 1 0 8 , 3 2 4 , 9 7 2 8 , 2 4 , 7 2 , 2 1 6 , 6 4 8 1 6 , 4 8 , 1 4 4 , 4 3 2 3 2 , 9 6 , 2 8 8 , 8 6 4 6 4 , 1 9 2 , 5 7 6 1 2 8 , 3 8 4 2 5 6 , 7 6 8 5 1 2 for a total of 3 4 .
I think my solution is the same as C L's but less formal.
For an integer n = p 1 a 1 p 2 a 2 . . . p x a x , we define ϕ − 1 ( n ) = ( 1 − p 1 1 ) ( 1 − p 2 1 ) . . . ( 1 − p x 1 ) n
= ( p 1 − 1 ) ( p 2 − 1 ) . . . ( p x − 1 ) p 1 a 1 + 1 p 2 a 2 + 1 . . . p x a x + 1
For this to be an integer, the denominator must divide numerator. Also note that primes contained in denominator are also contained in the numerator, since all of them are p i < p x .
So we may write : ϕ − 1 ( n ) = p 1 a 1 − r 1 + 1 p 2 a 2 − r 2 + 1 . . . p x a x − r x + 1 for some r i ≥ 0 . Following 3 conclusions are important:
No prime powers (except those of 2) are infinitely Euler. Obvious since ϕ − 1 ( p α ) = p − 1 p α + 1 but p & ( p − 1 ) are coprime.
p 1 = 2 . (Consider not, then the numerator is odd, & denominator even, contradiction.)
r 1 ≤ 1 . Suppose r 1 > 1 , then power of 2 decreases at each step of using ϕ − 1 & at some stage it would become 0,then no more m i + 1 can be obtained, contradicting the infinite sequence condition. In more rigorous words, if r 1 > 1 , then a 1 of m i < a 1 of m i + 1 but this sequence is non-negative & cannot decrease indefinitely.
Now r 1 = 0 ⇒ n is a power of 2 , yielding cases: m = 2 0 , 2 1 , . . . , 2 9 ie 10 cases.
Again r 1 = 1 ⇒ there is/are another prime/s p k whose ( p − 1 ) contains 2 1 . There can be atmost 1 such more prime since if there are 2 primes,their ( p k − 1 ) contains more than just 2 1 . Also the other prime must be 3 , as only ( 3 − 1 ) contains 2 1 . So these m are of form 2 i 3 j [ i , j ≥ 1 ] which are 24 in number < 1 0 0 0 .
Thus there are total 34 infinitely Euler numbers. (Exotic problem!)
It's a bit misleading to "define" a function φ − 1 , since φ is not invertible ( φ ( 2 n ) = φ ( n ) for any odd n ).
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I believe a more concrete definition of ϕ − 1 ( n ) would be the set of all k ∈ N satisfying ϕ ( k ) = n . But I still disagree with certain claims this solution uses. It assumes that there exists exactly 1 integer k with ϕ ( k ) = n . That is not true: the number of such integers will be 0 if n > 1 and n ≡ 1 ( m o d 2 ) . Also as you pointed out, if k ≡ 1 ( m o d 2 ) , g cd ( k , 2 ) = 1 ⟹ ϕ ( 2 k ) = ϕ ( 2 ) ϕ ( k ) = ϕ ( k ) , so there clearly exists more than 1 integer satisfying ϕ ( k ) = n . And there might also exist more than 1 odd integer k with ϕ ( k ) = n . Example: ϕ ( 7 ) = ϕ ( 9 ) = ϕ ( 1 4 ) = ϕ ( 1 8 ) = 6 so ϕ − 1 ( 6 ) = { 7 , 9 , 1 4 , 1 8 } , whereas according to the author's definition ϕ − 1 ( 6 ) should be 1 8 .
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There is always a function f (and in general, more than one) from R a n ( φ ) to N such that φ ( f ( n ) ) = n for all n ∈ R a n ( φ ) - just choose f ( n ) to be any element of the preimage φ − 1 { n } = { m ∣ φ ( m ) = n } . This is just saying that φ is surjective onto its range. Calling the function φ − 1 instead of f raises expectations, so calling it f would be better.
The real problem is that I don't think that the function f has been explicitly defined, even when restricted to the correct domain. There is discussion of the sort of shape that f ( n ) must have, but no explicit definition (for example) of the values of the indices r 1 , r 2 , . . . , r x .
Ultimately, Paramjit's arguments are not wrong - they are investigating the prime factors that occur in infinitely Euler numbers - but it needs to be more clearly expressed. Rather than writing down a function (or trying to) an argument written in the form "since m j = φ ( m j + 1 ) , the prime factorisations of m j and m j + 1 must be related as follows" would work.
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@Mark Hennings – I initially got confused when seeing this solution. Doesn't it assume the function ϕ ( n ) to be invertible (which is clearly false, a simple counterexample being what I posted in my previous comment)? Anyways, thanks for your clarification, and indeed I believe this solution might be made correct if it justified the domain of ϕ − 1 more rigorously. :)
@Mark Hennings – { r i } ≥ 1 are indices. Did I miss something? (Wasn't this implied?) Thanks for your suggestion (& the definition), so how shall I improve the current idea of function? Just suggest sir, what should have been added.
Where does the solution assume uniqueness of the solution of ϕ − 1 ( n ) ? I am just enumerating the cases, which would lead to an infinitely long Euler sequence, the rest cases need not be highlighted. As I already mentioned, I did not use an inverse,read above.
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@A Brilliant Member – I made this comment before Mark H.'s clarification, so I got confused when you defined ϕ − 1 . I believe your arguments make much more sense now, thanks to the clarification.
No, I am not using an inverse, I am using a new function & naming it ϕ − 1 abiding only the property ϕ − 1 ( ϕ ( n ) ) = n . I don't need it to be bijective(or even a relation would do,whose mapping is regulated by the property), my definition's property is the only thing I need here. Since all m i are well regulated, we will consider only terms which lead to valid sequences, strictly following, ϕ − 1 ( m i ) = m i + 1 . [Note that I could name the function f ( x ) as well,but here this name suits this problem better]
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Well, actually you want to use φ ( φ − 1 ( n ) ) = n . What is the domain of your function φ − 1 ? It is not the whole of N .
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Why can't it's domain be the whole N ?
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@A Brilliant Member – There is no n with φ ( n ) = 9 , so 9 cannot be in its domain.
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@Mark Hennings – Why can't I let ϕ − 1 ( n ) to be fractional for values like n = 9 (in particular ϕ − 1 ( 9 ) = 2 2 7 though it is vague). I think here goes an appropriate definition.
We define a relation (since there may an argument that for every element in domain,we may have multiple elements in the range), say f (to avoid unusual expectations) such that for any n , it is defined as I have written in the first line. Clearly, I don't need to be bijective or integral. If it is integral, well & good, we have an integer k such that ϕ ( k ) = n . Now our business is with this very value of k . For all such good values, ϕ ( f ( n ) ) = n is true. Since the totient function ϕ is defined exclusively for integers,this may not be extended upto cases like n = 9 . So maybe that doesn't go off from it's domain, however for such values the property ϕ ( f ( n ) ) = n doesn't hold.
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First, any power of 2 is infinitely Euler since ϕ ( 2 k + 1 ) = 2 k . Next, if j , k > 0 , then m = 2 j 3 k is infinitely Euler since ϕ ( 2 j 3 k + 1 ) = m .
We wish to prove that these are the only infinitely Euler numbers.
Let ν ( m ) denote the largest k for which 2 k divides m (e.g. ν ( 2 0 0 ) = 3 ). Note that ν ( m m ′ ) = ν ( m ) + ν ( m ′ ) . The following result is critical.
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Claim : For any positive integer m which is not a power of 2, we have ν ( ϕ ( m ) ) ≥ ν ( m ) ; equality holds if and only if m = 2 k p j for some prime p ≡ 3 ( m o d 4 ) and j , k > 0 .
Proof : Write m = 2 k n where n > 1 is odd, so that ϕ ( m ) = ϕ ( 2 k ) ϕ ( n ) and thus:
ν ( ϕ ( m ) ) − ν ( m ) = [ ν ( ϕ ( 2 k ) ) − ν ( 2 k ) ] + [ ν ( ϕ ( n ) ) − ν ( n ) ]
Now the first summand on RHS is either 0 or -1 (it's -1 if and only if k > 0 ). The second summand equals ν ( ϕ ( n ) ) which is always positive since n > 1 . This proves the first statement. If equality holds, then the first summand must be -1, so k > 0 , and the second summand satisfy ν ( ϕ ( n ) ) = 1 .
Recall that if n = ∏ i p i a i is the prime factorisation of n , then ϕ ( n ) = ∏ i ( p i − 1 ) p i a i − 1 . Hence, ν ( ϕ ( n ) ) = 1 if and only if there's only one prime factor p i and p i − 1 only contributes a single factor of 2 to the product, i.e. n = p j where p ≡ 3 ( m o d 4 ) . (QED)
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Now suppose m is infinitely Euler, where m is not a power of 2, and m 1 , m 2 , m 3 , … are such that:
Since m 1 is not a power of 2, neither is any m i . Hence, by the above claim, ν ( m i ) is a (non-strictly) decreasing sequence so it must be eventually constant:
ν ( m N ) = ν ( m N + 1 ) = ν ( m N + 2 ) = … = k
for some N . By the claim, it follows that m N + 1 , m N + 2 , … are all of the form 2 k p j , for some odd prime p ≡ 3 ( m o d 4 ) . But
ϕ ( 2 k p j ) = 2 k 2 p − 1 p j − 1
so if p > 3 then 2 p − 1 is an odd number > 1. This means ϕ ( 2 k p j ) cannot be of the form 2 k p j except when j = 1 . Thus, m N + 2 , m N + 3 , … are all of the form 2 k p where p ≡ 3 ( m o d 4 ) . Writing m i = 2 k p i , we must have p i + 1 = 2 p i + 1 . However, clearly p i cannot be all prime since:
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Conclusion
Hence, the infinitely Euler numbers less than 1000 are:
And the answer is 3 4 .