Primes, Cubes And Squares

Let p p and q q be prime numbers such that p 3 + q 3 + 1 = p 2 q 2 . p^3 + q^3 + 1 = p^2 q^2. What is the maximum possible value of p + q ? p+q?


The answer is 5.

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3 solutions

Anirudha Brahma
Jul 24, 2016

Case 1 - Both p and q are Odd

O d d 3 + O d d 3 + 1 = O d d 2 × O d d 2 Odd^3 + Odd^3 +1 = Odd^2 \times Odd^2

O d d + 1 = O d d Odd + 1 = Odd

E v e n O d d Even \neq Odd )

Case 2 - Both p and q are Even

E v e n 3 + E v e n 3 + 1 = E v e n 2 × E v e n 2 Even^3 + Even^3 + 1 = Even^2 \times Even^2

E v e n + 1 = E v e n Even + 1 = Even

O d d E v e n Odd \neq Even

Case 3 - P is odd and q is even

As the only even prime is 2 , Putting p = 2 we get

9 + p 3 = 4 × p 2 9 + p^3 = 4 \times p^2

p 3 4 p 2 = 9 p^3 - 4p^2 = -9

p 2 ( p 4 ) = 9 p^2(p-4) = -9

As p 2 p^2 is always positive that means p 4 p-4 term will be negative . So ,

p 4 < 0 p-4 < 0

p < 4 p < 4

The only odd prime less than 4 is "3"

So p = 3 p = 3

p + q = 5 p + q = \boxed{5}

In case 1, both L.H.S and R.H.S are odd.

A Former Brilliant Member - 4 years, 10 months ago

Case 1 is wrong, so solution is incorrect.

Anthony Cutler - 4 years, 6 months ago

I may be missing something. Case 1 doesn't end up in any contradiction.

Joel Tan - 4 years, 6 months ago

So my answer 2+3 is CORRECT... (2+3 being 5)

Bob Vandenbosch - 4 years, 6 months ago
Lim Li Yen
Jul 23, 2016

Relevant wiki: Diophantine Equations - Solve by Factoring

WLOG, q p q \leq p . We may rewrite p 3 + q 3 + 1 = p 2 q 2 p^3 + q^3 + 1 = p^2q^2 as q 3 + 1 = p 2 q 2 p 3 q^3 + 1 = p^2q^2 - p^3 . We now factor both sides to obtain ( q + 1 ) ( q 2 q + 1 ) = p 2 ( q 2 p ) (q+1)(q^2-q+1) = p^2(q^2-p) . Hence p 2 p^2 divides ( q + 1 ) ( q 2 q + 1 ) (q+1)(q^2-q+1) . Since q p q \leq p , 0 ˂ q 2 q + 1 ˂ p 2 0 ˂ q^2-q+1 ˂ p^2 . Therefore, p = q + 1 p=q+1 so that the only solution is p = 3 p=3 and q = 2 q=2 . The maximum value of p + q p+q is 5 5 .

How do you conclude that p=q+1 ?

Konstantin Zeis - 4 years, 10 months ago

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Since p^2 divides (q+1)(q^2-q+1) and p^2 is larger then the righthand it must be that p^2 equals the lefthand q+1. Otherwise p^2 is not a divisor of (q+1)(q^2-q+1)

Peter van der Linden - 4 years, 10 months ago

Since p^2 divides (q+1)(q^2-q+1) and p^2 is larger then the righthand it must be that p^2 equals the lefthand q+1. Otherwise p^2 is not a divisor of (q+1)(q^2-q+1).

Peter van der Linden - 4 years, 10 months ago

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But 6 4=8 3 and 8 is larger than 4 and 6

Konstantin Zeis - 4 years, 10 months ago

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I meant 6 times 4 = 8 times 3

Konstantin Zeis - 4 years, 10 months ago

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@Konstantin Zeis Uhm i don't get what you mean. Can you specify where 6x4 and 8× 3 come from?

Peter van der Linden - 4 years, 10 months ago

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@Peter van der Linden Its just an example. Just because the one factor on one side is bigger than one of the factors on the other side that doesn't mean it's equal to the other factor on the other side

Konstantin Zeis - 4 years, 10 months ago

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@Konstantin Zeis Aaah ok, but we are working with an equality and not an inequality. The only given 'inequality' is p>= q. So p^2 >= q^2 > q^2 -q +1. Therefore p must be equal q + 1 to be a divisor of (q+1)(q^2 - q + 1)

Peter van der Linden - 4 years, 10 months ago
Tan Li Xuan
Jul 29, 2016

We have p 3 + q 3 + 1 = p 2 q 2 q 3 + 1 = p 2 q 2 p 3 q 3 + 1 = p 2 ( q 2 p ) q 3 + 1 q 2 p = p 2 p^{3} + q^{3} + 1 = p^{2}q^{2} \Rightarrow q^{3} + 1 = p^{2}q^{2} - p^{3} \Rightarrow q^{3} + 1 = p^{2}(q^{2} - p) \Rightarrow \frac{q^{3} + 1}{q^{2} - p} = p^{2}

Since p p is a prime, this means q 3 + 1 q 2 p \frac{q^{3} + 1}{q^{2} - p} is an integer, so q 2 p q^{2} - p divides q 3 + 1 q^{3} + 1 .

We know that ( q 2 p ) × q = q 3 p q (q^{2} - p) \times q = q^{3} - pq .

As q 3 + 1 = q 3 p q + ( p q + 1 ) q^{3} + 1 = q^{3} - pq + (pq + 1) , we know that q 2 p ( q 2 p ) q + ( p q + 1 ) q 2 p p q + 1 ( 1 ) q^{2} - p | (q^{2} - p)q + (pq + 1) \Rightarrow q^{2} - p | pq + 1 ----------- (1)

Since the given equation is symmetric, we may assume q p q \geq p . We will now consider 3 cases :

(i) q p + 2 q \geq p + 2

In this case, we have p q + 1 q 2 p q ( q 2 ) + 1 q 2 q = q ( q 2 ) + 1 q ( q 1 ) 1 \frac{pq+1}{q^{2} - p} \leq \frac{q(q-2) + 1}{q^{2} - q} = \frac{q(q-2) + 1}{q(q-1)} \leq 1 since q q is a prime and thus larger than 1. So p q + 1 q 2 p \frac{pq+1}{q^{2} - p} cannot be an integer, a contradiction to (1). Thus there is no solution in this case.

(ii) q = p + 1 q = p + 1

Since one of p , q p, q must be even, p p must be 2 since 2 is the only even prime and p q p \leq q . Thus ( p , q ) = ( 2 , 3 ) (p, q) = (2, 3) which satisfies the given equation, so this is one possible solution.

(iii) q = p q = p

We immediately have 2 q 3 + 1 = q 4 1 = q 4 2 q 3 2q^{3} + 1 = q^{4} \Rightarrow 1 = q^{4} - 2q^{3} which is impossible since the RHS is divisible by q q , but the LHS is not.

Thus, there exists only one possible solution (down to permutations) which is ( p , q ) = ( 2 , 3 ) (p, q) = (2, 3) . So we know that the maximum value of p + q p + q is 5 \boxed{5} .

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