How many positive integers n are there such that 6 n − 1 is a prime number?
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Another way of looking at it: x n − y n is always divisible by x − y for positive integral values of n .
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Just the way I did it , :D
Your formula is helpful
Just a number pattern.
yeah,right.
We can calculate this by finding the value and pattern of 6 n − 1 where we will take n as: n = 1 , 2 and 3
6 1 − 1 = 6 − 1 = 5 , where n = 1
6 2 − 1 = 3 6 − 1 = 3 5 , where n = 2
6 3 − 1 = 2 1 6 − 1 = 2 1 5 , where n = 3
We notice that apart from 5 (which has 2 factors 1 and 5)every next result has more than 2 factors (1, 5 and the number itself, etc).
A prime number has only 2 factors: 1 and number itself.
Thus, we have only 1 solution to this question, that is the prime number 5
Thus, the answer is 1
How can you be sure that the pattern will always hold? Making a conjecture is one thing; proving it is a completely different deal.
And there is a problem with the statement :"We notice that apart 5 from every next result is a multiple of 5 ."
5 is a multiple of 5 as well.
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Mursalin that is a good question. We know that prime numbers have two factors ( 1 and number itself). Hence, 5 is a prime number (Factors: 1 and 5 ).
Now we know that any number ending with 6 , when multiplied by 6 gives 6 in the unit's place of the resulting number. Therefore we can conclude that every power of 6 ends with 6 . When the unit's place 6 is subtracted from 1 we get 5 ( 6 − 1 = 5 ) . So every power of 6 subtracted by 1 will be a multiple of 5 . So that particular number will not be a prime number because it will have more than 2 factors ( 1 , 5 , number itself, etc.)
So we have one solution to this question that is the prime number 5 .
So, the answer is 1
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Now that is a more complete argument!
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@Mursalin Habib – Would you like to vote my solution!
@Mursalin... 5 ke baad baaki 5 ke multiple ...therefore they not prime ..this needs no proof
there may be prime number for n positive integer at n= higher than 3?
All powers of 6 end with last digit as 6, hence, subtracting 1 from this will always give an answer divisible by 5.
This is not a proof. Look at the other solutions.
All the powers of six with exponent two or higher ends with number 6.As result,the number ends with 5,obviously a composite number.Only the value of n=1 satisfy.
For all positive integer values of n, 6^n ends in the digit 6. (This is the trick where you just multiply the last digit to get the last digit of the next in the geometric sequence).
This means that if you subtract 1, you get a positive integer which ends in the digit 5: a multiple of 5.
There for the only prime is when n=1, so one solution.
The 6 n − 1 can be written as 6 n − 1 n . We know that:
a n − b n = k = 0 ∑ n − 1 a k ⋅ b n − 1 − k
X ( n ) = 6 n − 1 n = ( 6 − 1 ) k = 0 ∑ n − 1 6 k ⋅ 1 n − 1 − k = 5 k = 0 ∑ n − 1 6 k
The X will always be multiple of 5 which is a prime number, so X will always be divisible by 5. So the last prime number of X ( n ) is 5 and X ( 1 ) = 5 so n = 1
Any power of 6 have digit at unit place 6 . 6^n -1 divisible by 5 . Hence 6^1-1 is answer. There exist only solution 1
Cyclicity of number 6 is 6 only . So for each n 6^n -1 always be multiple of 5. The only prime number we can get is 5
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For all positive integral n , the units digit of 6 n will be 6. Subtracting 1 from this will cause the number to be divisible by 5 . The only prime multiple of 5 is 5 itself, which is obtained when n = 1 . Thus, there is only 1 solution.