Primitive roots are magic

( ord ( n ) < p 1 n ) ( m o d 1601 ) \displaystyle \left( \prod _{\text{ord}(n)<p-1}^{}{ n } \right) \pmod{1601}

Consider the prime number 1601 1601 . Let ord ( x ) \text{ord}(x) denote the least j > 0 j>0 such that x j 1 ( m o d 1601 ) x^j\equiv 1 \pmod{1601} . Evaluate the product above over the set of nonzero residues modulo 1601 1601 .


The answer is 1600.

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2 solutions

Otto Bretscher
Nov 3, 2015

Note that o r d ( n ) = o r d ( n 1 ) ord(n)=ord(n^{-1}) , where n 1 n^{-1} is taken modulo 1601. Thus all the products n n 1 n*n^{-1} cancel out, except for n = n 1 = 1 n=n^{-1}=-1 , so that the product is 1 1600 ( m o d 1601 ) -1\equiv \boxed{1600} \pmod{1601}

Moderator note:

Pairing up terms is the nice way to showing the result. It works for wilson's theorem with a clear pairing.

Watch out that in the above solution, the other product that doesn't "cancel out" is when n = n 1 = 1 n = n^{-1} = 1 , because we have a repeated term. However, it contributes a term of 1, which doesn't affect the product.

Dylan Pentland
Nov 3, 2015

If we disregard the condition o r d ( n ) < p 1 ord(n)<p-1 then we have by Wilson's theorem

n = 1 p 1 n 1 ( m o d p ) \prod_ {n=1}^{p-1}{n} \equiv -1 \pmod{p}

and that by introducing the condition in the problem we remove all primitive roots from the product. Thus, if the value of the desired product is a a and g 1 , g 2 . . . g ϕ ( p 1 ) g_1, g_2 ... g_{\phi(p-1)} are the primitive roots then

a ( n = 1 ϕ ( p 1 ) g n ) = 1 a \left( \prod_ {n=1}^{\phi(p-1)}{g_n} \right) = -1

Now, we just need n = 1 ϕ ( p 1 ) g n \prod_ {n=1}^{\phi(p-1)}{g_n} . It's pretty well known that this product is just one mod p p , but I left a proof as a comment. Using that it's one, we get a × 1 = 1 a\times 1 = -1 so a = 1 a=-1 . So the answer is 1600!

First, re-write the product of the primitive roots.

n = 1 ϕ ( p 1 ) g n = g c d ( i , p 1 ) = 1 g 1 i = g 1 g c d ( i , p 1 ) = 1 i \Large \prod_ {n=1}^{\phi(p-1)}{g_n} = \prod_ {gcd(i,p-1)=1}^{}{{g_1}^{i}} = {g_1}^{\sum_ {gcd(i,p-1)=1}^{}{i}}

Fortunately, we have the property that if g c d ( i , p 1 ) = 1 gcd(i,p-1)=1 then g c d ( p 1 i , p 1 ) = 1 gcd(p-1-i,p-1)=1 . Hence, we get ϕ ( p 1 ) \phi(p-1) pairs summing to p 1 p-1 so the product is just

g 1 ( ϕ ( p 1 ) ) ( p 1 ) 2 = 1 \displaystyle{g_1}^{\frac{\left(\phi(p-1)\right) (p-1)}{2}} = 1

since ϕ ( p 1 ) \phi(p-1) is even and therefore we are raising to a power 0 mod p-1, giving 1.

Dylan Pentland - 5 years, 7 months ago

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Can you clarify the Latex in your first equation? Thanks!

Calvin Lin Staff - 5 years, 7 months ago

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I made it bigger, hopefully it's readable now.

Dylan Pentland - 5 years, 7 months ago

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@Dylan Pentland Ah, I see that it is exactly what you mean. Looks good! I thought it was a Latex error.

Calvin Lin Staff - 5 years, 7 months ago

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