Probability-4 Easy one

A man can hit a target once in 4 shots. If he fires 4 shots in succession, what is the probability that he will hit his target?

175/256 81/256 1 1/256

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3 solutions

Ritu Roy
Jan 3, 2015

"A man can hit a target once in 4 shots" means that the probability of hitting the target is 1/4, thus the probability of missing the target is 1-1/4=3/4.

The probability that he will hit a target while shooting 4 times is basically the probability that he will hit at least once, so 1-(the probability that he will miss all 4 times): P=1- ( 3 4 ) 4 = 175 256 (\frac{3}{4})^4=\frac{175}{256}

solution - not my own.

Ritu Roy - 6 years, 5 months ago

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Ok, it can also be done by taking cases.

Mahimn Bhatt - 6 years, 5 months ago

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Can you pls show how??

Ritu Roy - 6 years, 5 months ago

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@Ritu Roy Take cases as 1- Probability that he hits the target once which means he fails in three attempts. 2-Probability that he hits the target twice and fails two times. .... ... Total 4 cases. Calculate the probability in each case and add them.

Mahimn Bhatt - 6 years, 5 months ago

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@Mahimn Bhatt @Mahimn Bhatt Thanx a lot

Ritu Roy - 6 years, 5 months ago

@Mahimn Bhatt Is it like this

Pls correct if wrong

Case 1 P(Hits the target one time) = 1 4 \frac{1}{4} ||y, Case 2 P(Hits the target two times) Case 3 P(Hits the target three times) Case 4 P(Hits the target four times) Total P = 1 4 + 1 2 + 3 4 + \frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{2} + \frac{3}{4} + .... ???

Ritu Roy - 6 years, 5 months ago

Short and sweet

Vighnesh Raut - 6 years, 5 months ago

Efficient :)

math man - 6 years, 3 months ago
Mahimn Bhatt
Jan 4, 2015

Detailed solution. Upvoted.

Ritu Roy - 6 years, 5 months ago

A man can hit a target once in 4 shots. Obviously, he has a probability of 1 4 \frac {1}{4} of hitting the target, and in 4 shots he has a probability of 1 4 4 = 1 \frac{1}{4}*4=\large{1} of hitting it. _\square

Well guess what? We could miss every single shot, couldn't he? So the probability can't be 1 1 . That's weird, isn't it?

No, not at all. We are effectively trying to find the probability that he'll hit the target at least once. Let's find the compliment: that he misses every single shot. This is obviously ( 3 4 ) 4 = 81 256 (\frac{3}{4})^4=\frac {81}{256} , so our probability is 1 81 256 = 175 256 1-\frac{81}{256}=\frac{175}{256} . Or is it?


This can also be done using inclusion/exclusion. Try it yourself!

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