∫ 0 1 ( 1 + e − x 2 ) d x = ?
This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try
refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and,
finally, (c)
loading the
non-javascript version of this page
. We're sorry about the hassle.
For the interval x ∈ ( 0 , 1 ) , we can see that e x > e x 2 ⟹ e − x < e − x 2 and since f ( t ) = e t is always positive and an increasing function, therefore ∫ 0 1 ( 1 + e − x 2 ) d x > ∫ 0 1 ( 1 + e − x ) d x ⟹ ∫ 0 1 ( 1 + e − x 2 ) d x > 2 − e − 1 . Also note that e − x 2 < 1 ∀ x ∈ R + , thus ∫ 0 1 ( 1 + e − x 2 ) d x < ∫ 0 1 ( 1 + 1 ) d x ⟹ ∫ 0 1 ( 1 + e − x 2 ) d x < 2 . Hence 2 − e − 1 < I < 2 and none of the options given even lie inside the interval, giving us the answer None of these .
The integral ∫ e − x 2 d x is found to have no antiderivative in terms of elementary functions. One can simply use the Maclaurin series for e t to get the result as ∫ 0 z e − x 2 d x = ∫ 0 z n = 0 ∑ ∞ n ! ( − 1 ) n x 2 n d x = n = 0 ∑ ∞ ∫ 0 z n ! ( − 1 ) n x 2 n d x = n = 0 ∑ ∞ ( 2 n + 1 ) n ! ( − 1 ) n z 2 n + 1 which gives quick convergence for z = 1 and the answer can thus be approximated.
What's this?
Log in to reply
graphical area!
Log in to reply
I didn't understand.Can you please explain.
Log in to reply
@Akhil Bansal – finding integrals means finding the area under that function btw the limits, what he did is draw the curve and find the area underneath it...rest of it also dnt knw!
Log in to reply
@A Former Brilliant Member – So,what's the answer?
∫ 0 1 ( 1 + e − x 2 ) dx = 1 + ∫ 0 1 e − x 2 dx
= 1 + ∫ 0 1 2 z 1 e − z dz Substituting z = x 2
= 1 + 2 1 ∫ 0 1 z − 2 1 e − z dz
= 1 + 2 π ∫ 0 1 Γ ( 2 1 ) z 1 − 2 1 e − z dz
= 1 + 2 π I ( 2 1 , 1 ) where I ( 2 1 , 1 ) denotes The Incomplete Gamma Function
So the answer is "None of the others"
We can approximate using taylor expansion..........
Problem Loading...
Note Loading...
Set Loading...
Relevant wiki: Error function
I = ∫ 0 1 ( 1 + e − x 2 ) d x = ∫ 0 1 d x + ∫ 0 1 e − x 2 d x = 1 + 2 π erf ( 1 ) ≈ 1 . 7 4 6 8 2 Note that error function erf ( x ) = π 2 ∫ 0 x e − t 2 d t
Therefore, the answer is " None of the others ".