Problem of the Day 3

Calculus Level 3

0 1 ( 1 + e x 2 ) d x = ? \large \int_0^1 \left(1 + e^{-x^2} \right) dx = ?

None of the others -1 1 + e 1 1 + e^{-1} 2

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6 solutions

Chew-Seong Cheong
May 26, 2018

Relevant wiki: Error function

I = 0 1 ( 1 + e x 2 ) d x = 0 1 d x + 0 1 e x 2 d x Note that error function erf ( x ) = 2 π 0 x e t 2 d t = 1 + π 2 erf ( 1 ) 1.74682 \begin{aligned} I & = \int_0^1 \left(1+e^{-x^2}\right) dx \\ & = \int_0^1 dx + \color{#3D99F6} \int_0^1 e^{-x^2} dx & \small \color{#3D99F6} \text{Note that error function }\text{erf } (x) = \frac 2{\sqrt \pi} \int_0^x e^{-t^2} dt \\ & = 1 + \frac {\sqrt \pi}2 \text{erf }(1) \\ & \approx 1.74682 \end{aligned}

Therefore, the answer is " None of the others ".

Tapas Mazumdar
May 22, 2018

For the interval x ( 0 , 1 ) x \in (0,1) , we can see that e x > e x 2 e x < e x 2 e^x > e^{x^2} \implies e^{-x} < e^{-x^2} and since f ( t ) = e t f(t) = e^t is always positive and an increasing function, therefore 0 1 ( 1 + e x 2 ) d x > 0 1 ( 1 + e x ) d x 0 1 ( 1 + e x 2 ) d x > 2 e 1 \displaystyle \int_0^1 (1+e^{-x^2}) \,dx > \int_0^1 (1+e^{-x}) \,dx \implies \displaystyle \int_0^1 (1+e^{-x^2}) \,dx > 2 - e^{-1} . Also note that e x 2 < 1 x R + e^{-x^2} < 1 \ \forall \ x \in \mathbb{R}^{+} , thus 0 1 ( 1 + e x 2 ) d x < 0 1 ( 1 + 1 ) d x 0 1 ( 1 + e x 2 ) d x < 2 \displaystyle \int_0^1 (1+e^{-x^2}) \,dx < \int_0^1 (1+1) \,dx \implies \displaystyle \int_0^1 (1+e^{-x^2}) \,dx < 2 . Hence 2 e 1 < I < 2 2 - e^{-1} < I < 2 and none of the options given even lie inside the interval, giving us the answer None of these \boxed{\text{None of these}} .


The integral e x 2 d x \displaystyle \int e^{-x^2} \,dx is found to have no antiderivative in terms of elementary functions. One can simply use the Maclaurin series for e t e^t to get the result as 0 z e x 2 d x = 0 z n = 0 ( 1 ) n x 2 n n ! d x = n = 0 0 z ( 1 ) n x 2 n n ! d x = n = 0 ( 1 ) n z 2 n + 1 ( 2 n + 1 ) n ! \displaystyle \int_0^z e^{-x^2} \,dx = \int_0^z \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \dfrac{(-1)^n x^{2n}}{n!} \,dx = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \int_0^z \dfrac{(-1)^n x^{2n}}{n!} \,dx = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \dfrac{(-1)^n z^{2n+1}}{(2n+1) n!} which gives quick convergence for z = 1 z=1 and the answer can thus be approximated.

Abhishek Sharma
Sep 18, 2015

What's this?

Akhil Bansal - 5 years, 8 months ago

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graphical area!

A Former Brilliant Member - 5 years, 8 months ago

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I didn't understand.Can you please explain.

Akhil Bansal - 5 years, 8 months ago

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@Akhil Bansal finding integrals means finding the area under that function btw the limits, what he did is draw the curve and find the area underneath it...rest of it also dnt knw!

A Former Brilliant Member - 5 years, 8 months ago

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@A Former Brilliant Member So,what's the answer?

Akhil Bansal - 5 years, 8 months ago

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@Akhil Bansal ask him not me :D

A Former Brilliant Member - 5 years, 8 months ago
Tanishq Varshney
Sep 17, 2015

see error function

Samrit Pramanik
May 22, 2018

0 1 ( 1 + e x 2 ) dx = 1 + 0 1 e x 2 dx \displaystyle\int_0^1 (1+e^{-x^2})\text{dx} = 1+\displaystyle\int_0^1 e^{-x^2} \text{dx}

= 1 + 0 1 1 2 z e z dz = 1+ \displaystyle\int_0^1 \frac{1}{2\sqrt{z}}e^{-z} \text{dz} Substituting z = x 2 z=x^2

= 1 + 1 2 0 1 z 1 2 e z dz = 1+ \frac{1}{2} \displaystyle\int_0^1 z^{-\frac{1}{2}} e^{-z} \text{dz}

= 1 + π 2 0 1 z 1 1 2 Γ ( 1 2 ) e z dz = 1+ \frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2} \displaystyle\int_0^1 \frac{z^{1-\frac{1}{2}}}{\Gamma(\frac{1}{2})} e^{-z} \text{dz}

= 1 + π 2 I ( 1 2 , 1 ) = 1+ \frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2} \text{I}\Big(\frac{1}{2},1\Big) where I ( 1 2 , 1 ) \text{I}\Big(\frac{1}{2},1\Big) denotes The Incomplete Gamma Function \text{The Incomplete Gamma Function}

So the answer is "None of the others" \text{So the answer is "None of the others"}

Aaghaz Mahajan
Apr 14, 2018

We can approximate using taylor expansion..........

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