x 2 d x 2 d 2 y + x d x d y + y = 0
where y = f ( x ) , f ( 1 ) = 1 and y ′ ( 1 ) = 0
Find y ( e − 2 1 π ) .
This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try
refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and,
finally, (c)
loading the
non-javascript version of this page
. We're sorry about the hassle.
This is amazing. Thanks for sharing!
@Ronak Agarwal I'm curious to know how you came across this differential equation. Did you encounter it in a physics problem perhaps?
Log in to reply
I was inspired by a board problem that said : y=sin(log(x)) then prove that :
it satisfies the differential equation posted in this question. It was boring.
I thought if given the differential equation can I solve that. Hence I solved it and posted the question here.
Log in to reply
Wow. That's a nice way to turn menial work around. :D So did you solve it the same way? I came across this family of differential equations while trying to learn/prove the uniqueness theorem in electrostatics. How about you?
Log in to reply
@Shashwat Shukla – I solved it with a change of variables.
Log in to reply
@Ronak Agarwal – Can you please outline your method? What was the substitution?
i just solved and found y=Bcos(lnx)
Problem Loading...
Note Loading...
Set Loading...
The key thing to know is that this is an example of a Cauchy-Euler equation .
You can visit the link and work out the details yourself if you like. If not, then:
Assume a solution of the form y = x m .
Differentiate it twice and substitute the expressions for y ′ and y ′ ′ to get: ( m ( m − 1 ) + m + 1 ) x m = 0 .
As the relation holds for all x , we must have: ( m ( m − 1 ) + m + 1 ) = 0 i.e m 2 + 1 = 0 Thus m = ± i .
Using the fact that this differential equation is linear, we must have the general solution to be of the form: y = A x i + B x − i for some arbitrary constants A and B which we determine using the given conditions.
We get A + B = 1 from f ( 1 ) = 1 and A − B = 0 from f ′ ( 1 ) = 0 .
Thus, y = 2 x i + x − i
As for the final answer, note that i = e i 2 π and thus, i i = e − 2 π
Then, f ( i i ) = 2 e i 2 π + e − i 2 π = 0 .
Note:
For anyone with qualms about differentiating x i , it is to be noted that d x d x m = m x m − 1 for complex m as well.
This is because the derivative of x m is basically computed by using the binomial expansion which holds for a complex index as well.