If the infinite series n = 1 ∑ ∞ n 3 ( n + 1 ) 3 1 = a − π b where a , b are positive integers. Find the value of a + b
Bonus: Using the above result show that the classical result 3 < π < 4 .
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Before we start to find the closed form for infinite series we shall start with Bonus problem.
I happen to derive this result while proving Charming inequality/approximation in maths stack exchange.
Preliminaries:
Consider the set S = { X n = n 3 ( n + 1 ) 3 1 : n ∈ N } and here we show that set S is bounded set with lower and bounds 0 and 8 1 respectively. Note that for n ≥ 1 the S n + 1 − S n = ( n + 1 ) 3 1 [ ( n + 2 ) 3 1 − n 3 1 ] = ( n + 1 ) 3 1 [ n 3 ( n + 2 ) 2 n 3 − ( n + 2 ) 3 ] ⋯ ( 1 ) since for all n > 1 , n < n + 2 ⟹ n 3 − ( n + 2 ) 3 < 0 from ( 1 ) it follows that S n + 1 − S n < 0 implies the sequence X n contained in set S is a decreasing sequence and thus s u p { X n : n ∈ N } i n f { X n : n ∈ N } = 8 1 < 1 = 0 Therefore, 0 < X n ≤ 8 1 < 1 . Futher, n 3 ( n + 1 ) 3 > n ( n + 1 ) = Y n and hence 0 < n ≥ 1 ∑ X n < n ≥ 1 ∑ ( Y n ) − 1 = 1 ⋯ ( 2 ) since we have telescoping series as n ≥ 1 ∑ ( Y n ) − 1 = n ≥ 1 ∑ ( n 1 − n + 1 1 ) = 1
Proof
n ≥ 1 ∑ X n = n ≥ 1 ∑ ( Y n 1 ) 3 = n ≥ 1 ∑ ( n 3 1 − ( n + 1 ) 3 1 ) − n ≥ 1 ∑ ( Y n ) 2 3 = ζ ( 3 ) − ζ ( 3 ) + 1 1 − 3 n ≥ 1 ∑ ( n 2 1 + ( n + 1 ) 2 1 ) − 2 n ≥ 1 ∑ ( Y n ) 1 = 1 − 6 ζ ( 2 ) + 9 = 1 0 − π 2 and thus from ( 2 ) n ≥ 1 ∑ X n > 0 ⟹ π < 1 0 since we want the closest bounding for π so we find the closest perfect square number of 1 0 which is as 9 − π 2 < 1 0 − π 2 < 1 6 − π 2 which implies 3 < π < 4 .
π < 4 is pretty obvious but how did you conclude π > 3 from those inequalities?
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It's not obvious to prove π < 4 . If it was obvious then I wont have been doing all those preliminaries works. It follows from preliminaries part.
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How isn't it obvious could you explain that to me?
Clearly, n = 1 ∑ ∞ n 3 ( n + 1 ) 3 1 = 1 0 − π 2 > 0 ⟹ π < 1 0 < 4
The reason the summation is positive is simply because we are adding positive terms only.
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@Vilakshan Gupta – That's what one need to show in the work rather than making just verbal arguments. What if we have alternating sequence?
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@Naren Bhandari – I never made a verbal statement. I commented after I wrote my solution.After getting the answer it's clear that π < 4 but how did you prove π > 3 ?
And of course , this is not an alternating sequence , I also know that, that's why I said that it's obvious that summation is positive.
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@Vilakshan Gupta – n = 1 ∑ ∞ n 3 ( n + 1 ) 3 1 < n = 1 ∑ ∞ n ( n + 1 ) 1 = 1 and hence 0 < 1 0 − π 2 < 1 , so that 9 < π 2 < 1 0 , and hence 3 < π < 1 0 < 4 .
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@Mark Hennings – Oh I see, I didn't notice that....Thanks sir.
@Naren Bhandari Would you mind if I borrow this idea to post an extension question? (I'll link back to this question, of course)
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Please go ahead, there is no copyright to knowledge :).
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Partial fraction decomposition of the given sum is n = 1 ∑ ∞ n 3 ( n + 1 ) 3 1 = n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( n 3 1 − ( n + 1 ) 3 1 ) − 3 n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( n 2 1 + ( n + 1 ) 2 1 ) + 6 n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( n 1 − n + 1 1 )
The first and the third partial sums telescope to 1 and the second sum equals 2 ζ ( 2 ) − 1 = 3 π 2 − 1 . Hence the sum is 1 − 3 ( 3 π 2 − 1 ) + 6 = 1 0 − π 2 . Therefore a = 1 0 , b = 2 making the answer 1 2 .