Pythagoras in trouble

Suppose x, y and z are co-prime positive integers satisfying the Pythagoras theorem, x^2 +y^2 = z^2

Now, what can we say about the nature of x and y?

  1. Both x and y are even
  2. Both x and y are odd
  3. x and y are either both odd or both even
  4. Only one of x and y can be even,
  5. There is no such constraint, x and y can be any numbers at a time

Put the correct option number in the answer. Please share your solutions, because here, the method, rather than the answer is the most important thing.


The answer is 4.

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4 solutions

Patrick Corn
Aug 20, 2014

None of these are really right. If x , y , z x,y,z have no common factor, then exactly one of x x and y y is even (which can be seen by a mod-4 analysis). But we can multiply them all by 2 2 and get them to be even. You should probably fix the problem to specify that ( x , y , z ) (x,y,z) is a primitive Pythagorean triple.

I did that just now. In fact I've been aware of the mistake ever since I posted it, but due to some difficulties couldn't correct it, sorry guys. All of you are requested to re-evaluate the problem and share your solutions. Anyway, thanks for the clarifications.

Pragjyotish Bhuyan Gogoi - 6 years, 9 months ago

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The correct answer is now 4.

Those who previously answered 5 have been marked correct.

Calvin Lin Staff - 6 years, 9 months ago

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But the problem has been changed to indicate that they are coprime.

Patrick Corn - 6 years, 9 months ago

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@Patrick Corn Thanks for catching that. I've kept the correct answer to 4, and those who answered 5 have been marked correct.

Calvin Lin Staff - 6 years, 9 months ago

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@Calvin Lin Even previously, the option '5' was wrong. Because if there's no constraint, it would mean 'x' and 'y' can be both odd, which can never be correct for any set of integers of the form (x,y,z) satisfying the theorem, whether co-prime or not. In the previous erroneous state of the problem, none of the options were correct. It can be easily deduced. After the correction, we know that option '4' is correct, i.e, one of x and y is always even if x,y,z are co-prime, let's assume it to be 'y'. Now from this set a 'non co-prime' set can be obtained by multiplying it with a positive integer 'a', (ax, ay, az), it is obvious that whatever value of 'a' you take, 'ay' will always be even. Thus both of the first two integers in the set can never be odd. And since by x, y,,z we denote every possible co-prime sets in the universe, this will be true for all the possible 'non co-prime' sets satisfying the Pythagoras theorem.

Pragjyotish Bhuyan Gogoi - 6 years, 9 months ago

But if the pythagorean triplet is 6,8,10 then? Or if it is 3,4,5. The answer to this question is wrong.Going to report it.

Anuj Shikarkhane - 6 years, 9 months ago

yh as it was mentioned, the correct answer should have been 5

Gunjas Singh - 6 years, 9 months ago

not mentioned*

Gunjas Singh - 6 years, 9 months ago

Here's the solution.

Why can't they both be even?

If x and y are both even, then x^2+y^2=z^2 must be an even number too. And since z^2 is a perfect square, it has to be a multiple of 4 in order to be even, making it of the form, z^2=4.(m^2), where m is some positive integer. So, z=2m, is an even number, which makes x, y and z all even and hence they can't be 'co-prime'.

Why can't they both be odd?

If x and y are odd, x^2 and y^2 are also odd and since the sum of two odd numbers is always even, z^2=x^2+y^2 must be an even number and by our former logic, it has to be a multiple of '4'. Now each odd number can be written in the form '1+an even number', let x=p+1, y=q+1, which makes z^2=x^2+y^2= p^2+q^2+2(p+q)+2, if you observe the sum carefully, you'll notice that the first three terms are divisible by four, leaving 2 as the sole term indivisible by '4'. So if we divide 'z^2' by 4 , we'll get a remainder of '2' which contradicts our original authentic deduction that z^2 is a multiple of '4'.

Which leaves us with only one choice, that only one of x and y can be even.

Melissa Quail
Jan 3, 2015

It's simple! Only one of x and y can be even because if they were both even, they would share a common factor of 2 and would therefore not be coprime which is one of the conditions given in the question.

So statement 4 is the correct answer.

Mehul Arora
Dec 22, 2014

Dude thats not right.

Note that there exists a pythagorean triplet such that 6^2+8^2=10^2

6,8 and 10 are not 'co-prime'.

Pragjyotish Bhuyan Gogoi - 6 years, 5 months ago

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