⌊ 2 k = 1 ∑ ∞ k ( k + 1 ) ( k + 2 ) ( k + 3 ) 1 ⌋ = ?
Notation: ⌊ ⋅ ⌋ denotes the floor function .
You can try more of my fundamental problems here .
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@Brian Moehring well done.
Note that k ( k + 2 ) = k 2 + 2 k < k 2 + 2 k + 1 = ( k + 1 ) 2 and ( k + 1 ) ( k + 3 ) = k 2 + 4 k + 3 < k 2 + 4 k + 4 = ( k + 2 ) 2 . Therefore,
( k + 1 ) ( k + 1 ) ( k + 2 ) ( k + 2 ) 1 < ⟹ k = 1 ∑ ∞ ( k + 1 ) ( k + 2 ) 1 < k = 1 ∑ ∞ ( k + 1 1 − k + 2 1 ) < 2 1 < k ( k + 1 ) ( k + 2 ) ( k + 3 ) 1 < k ( k ) ( k + 1 ) ( k + 1 ) 1 k = 1 ∑ ∞ k ( k + 1 ) ( k + 2 ) ( k + 3 ) 1 < k = 1 ∑ ∞ k ( k + 1 ) 1 k = 1 ∑ ∞ k ( k + 1 ) ( k + 2 ) ( k + 3 ) 1 < k = 1 ∑ ∞ ( k 1 − k + 1 1 ) k = 1 ∑ ∞ k ( k + 1 ) ( k + 2 ) ( k + 3 ) 1 < 1
Therefore, ⌊ 2 k = 1 ∑ ∞ k ( k + 1 ) ( k + 2 ) ( k + 3 ) 1 ⌋ = 1 .
@Chew-Seong Cheong Great job sir. You seem to be pretty expert in Math, especially in Algebra and Calculus. How did you do that? By chance, did you major in Math?
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I just have an interest in them. Very active in Brilliant.org. See this .
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@Chew-Seong Cheong Wow! Impressive, sir! Keep up the good work!
@Chew Seong Cheong Sir, do you happen to know the value of convergence for the series ⌊ k = 1 ∑ ∞ k ( k + 1 ) ( k + 2 ) ( k + 3 ) 1 ⌋ ?
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I cheated. I use Wolfram Alpha to check. It is free. See this link .
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I see. So, so far it seems like there is no theoretical approach in deriving the value for it. Anyway, your performance in solving this problem is impressive, sir.
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@Donglin Loo – You can use numerical solutions using programming. Not all problems can be solved algebraically. I use Excel spreadsheets regularly. It is easy to use. I can easily get an estimate of this problem by summing to 300 terms.
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@Chew-Seong Cheong – @Chew-Seong Cheong I see. Thanks for for your suggestion.
Read this first.
2 1 < n → ∞ lim k = 1 ∑ n k ( k + 1 ) ( k + 2 ) ( k + 3 ) 1 < 1
1 < 2 n → ∞ lim k = 1 ∑ n k ( k + 1 ) ( k + 2 ) ( k + 3 ) 1 < 2
∴ ⌊ 2 n → ∞ lim k = 1 ∑ n k ( k + 1 ) ( k + 2 ) ( k + 3 ) 1 ⌋ = 1
Simply, ⌊ 2 k = 1 ∑ ∞ k ( k + 1 ) ( k + 2 ) ( k + 3 ) 1 ⌋ = 1
Where do you live in Malaysia? I am in Petaling Jaya.
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Note that for all k ≥ 1 ( k + 1 ) ( k + 2 ) − k ( k + 3 ) = 2 > 0 ⟹ ( ( k + 1 ) ( k + 2 ) ) 2 > k ( k + 1 ) ( k + 2 ) ( k + 3 ) ⟹ ( k + 1 ) ( k + 2 ) 1 < k ( k + 1 ) ( k + 2 ) ( k + 3 ) 1 ( k + 2 ) ( k + 3 ) − k ( k + 1 ) > 5 k + 6 > 0 ⟹ k ( k + 1 ) ( k + 2 ) ( k + 3 ) > ( k ( k + 1 ) ) 2 ⟹ k ( k + 1 ) ( k + 2 ) ( k + 3 ) 1 < k ( k + 1 ) 1 In particular, this shows k = 1 ∑ ∞ k ( k + 1 ) 1 − 2 1 = k = 1 ∑ ∞ ( k + 1 ) ( k + 2 ) 1 < k = 1 ∑ ∞ k ( k + 1 ) ( k + 2 ) ( k + 3 ) 1 < k = 1 ∑ ∞ k ( k + 1 ) 1
Since k = 1 ∑ ∞ k ( k + 1 ) 1 = N → ∞ lim k = 1 ∑ N ( k 1 − k + 1 1 ) = N → ∞ lim ( 1 − N + 1 1 ) = 1 , the above inequality becomes 2 1 = 1 − 2 1 < k = 1 ∑ ∞ k ( k + 1 ) ( k + 2 ) ( k + 3 ) 1 < 1 1 < 2 k = 1 ∑ ∞ k ( k + 1 ) ( k + 2 ) ( k + 3 ) 1 < 2 and therefore ⌊ 2 k = 1 ∑ ∞ k ( k + 1 ) ( k + 2 ) ( k + 3 ) 1 ⌋ = 1