The area bounded by the 4 curves y = lo g x , y = lo g ∣ x ∣ , y = ∣ lo g x ∣ and y = ∣ lo g ∣ x ∣ ∣ is :
Note: The logarithms are in the natural base, and not base 10.
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manish bhargao These are the graphs
The area is 4 times the area bounded by y=ln(x) between 0 and 1.Now if you remember integral lnx=x(lnx-1)+c,it could save some time.Even better would be to use the fact that lnx is inverse of e^x and inverse functions are mirror images in the line y=x.and hence required area =4 times integral e^x between limit negative infinity and 0
I agree: letting t → − ∞ in e t is easier than x → 0 in x ln x
Basically, this will look like the graph of l n ( x ) , but it's flipped and rotating. We need to find the absolute value of the area bounded between 0 and 1 of l n ( x ) .
Integrating l n ( x ) with indefinite integral for now since im too lazy to put the bounds on every integral sign (excuse my lack of +C's).
Important note: ∫ e x = e x + C
∫ ln ( x ) d x
let x = e u and d x = e u d u
∫ ln ( e u ) e u d u
∫ u e u d u
Integrating by parts ∫ a d b = a b − ∫ b d a . Let a = u , d a = 1 , d b = e u , b = e u
a b − ∫ b d a = u e u − ∫ e u
u e u − e u
Re substituting for u. Lol, I'm substituting for "u". Haha, ha, anyone? Never mind
x = e u ⇒ ∴ u = ln x
l n ( x ) e ln ( x ) − e ln ( x )
x ln ( x ) − x
Now, we need the definite integral from 0 to 1, so plugging in x=0 will by some magical witch craft=0. When x=1, we have our integral equal to -1. We need the absolute area so we can let it be 1.
Finally, we multiply this by 4 since there are 4 of these figures.
This our answer is 1x4=4.
I think below one is easier and time saving to find integration
∫ l n ( x ) d x = l n ( x ) ∫ 1 d x − ∫ ( d x d l n ( x ) − ∫ 1 d x ) = x ∗ l n ( x ) − ∫ 1 d x = x ( l n ( x ) − 1 )
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hi can you draw it's graph.....
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Yes, I don't know how to draw using some software so, will draw on paper and upload the image.
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@Bhargav Upadhyay – thank you..I will be waiting ...
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@Manish Bhargao – I have uploaded the graphs.. :-)
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