For a 100-meter race, Adam’s race time ranges from 10-12 seconds, and Benjamin’s ranges from 11-13 seconds. Both times are independent and uniformly distributed.
If Adam and Benjamin run a 100-meter race together, what is the probability that Adam wins?
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really nice job with the illustration
I love the graph
This is the correct way to see it, using the inequality Adam's time < Benjamin's time
What is the probability of a draw?
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This event occurs only along the diagonal of one of the squares. Because the area of a line segment is 0, the probability is 0. I know this event still could occur but it's extremely unlikely, almost impossible to happen.
fastest solution
Good Job.A geometrical appproach to probability is really a talent which few only have.
Thank you for your comment but when a person likes this approach, it means he is ready .to write a beautiful solution on his one!!!
Ya I agree.
We calculate the probability that B will win. For B to win, A's and B's times both need to be between 1 1 and 1 2 seconds and B's time needs to be lower than A's.
The probability that A's time is between 1 1 and 1 2 seconds is 2 1
The probability that B's time is between 1 1 and 1 2 seconds is 2 1
Given that A's and B's times are both between 1 1 and 1 2 seconds, the probability that B's time is lower than A's is 2 1 (since both runners' times are uniformly distributed)
Thus the probability that B wins the race is ( 2 1 ) ( 2 1 ) ( 2 1 ) = 8 1 , therefore the probability that B loses, and thus Adam wins, the race is 8 7
Can't there be any case in which they both finish at the same time, for example a and b both finish in 11 or 12 seconds?
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If you look at the sample space (which another guy graphs below), a tie happens with probability zero (see here )
If the race times were rounded to the nearest second, there would be a tie 1/6th of the time. But, everyone is assuming the race time measurements are in infinite fractions of a second and therefore the probability is zero.
This is incredible
How can the faster runner have less than (1/2) probability of winning?
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Adam is the faster runner and has a 8 7 chance do winning(which is greater than 1/2)
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But in the question it says that Benjamin is the faster runner with times between 11 and 13, right? And the questions asks the probability for Adam (the slower runner) to win? I also don't get how Adams probability can be higher than 1/2?
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@Katja Berlin – Nevermind! I am an idiot. Not the runner with the highest times but with the lowest times win :P
He can't. The answers given are the wrong way round.
What is wrong with the argument there is a (1/2) probability that A has time between 11 and 12 seconds, and there is a (1/2) probability that B has a time between 11 and 12 seconds, and that if both have a time between 11 and 12 seconds, there is a (1/2) probability that A will win and a (1/2) probability that B will win. Also there is a (1/2) probability that time for A is between 10 and 11 seconds, and a (1/2) probability that time for B is between (12 and 13) seconds.
Let Adam be vertical axis and Ben be horizontal axis. 10:11 11:12 12:13 10:11 0 (1/4) (1/4) 11:12 0 (1/4) (1/4) 12:13 0 0 0
There is a (1/4) probability that both Adam and Ben will run in the common time 11:12. In that case, the probability is (1/2) that Adam will win, and (1/2) that Ben will win.
The probability that Ben wins is (1/4) + (1/4) + (1/2)(1/4) The probability that Adam wins is (1/2) (1/4)
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There is nothing wrong with your argument (in fact I believe you're saying the same thing I was) except that if the runners don't both run in the common time, it's Adam who will win (as he has the faster time.)
i don't get it
Yes but the question asks what is the probability that Benjamin wins. None of the options are correct.
We can illustrate this graphically, and since we have 2 different people to consider, we can use Area to work out the probability. Let Adam's time be x and Benjamin's time be y . On the graph shown below, we can see that the region encompassed within the first 4 lines is the total outcomes (a square). Also, for Adam to win, x < y so it also has to be above the purple line y = x . We can clearly see that the proportion of the area in the cases that Adam wins is 8 7
That’s how I did it as well :D
It would be clear to zoom into the exact region you're interested in. If there are 2 distinct regions, shading them with different colors would be helpful too.
Wonderfull, thanks.
I love this solution
Let t A be the time Adam takes to run the race. Likewise t B is the time Benjamin takes to run the race.
If 1 0 < t A < 1 1 Adam wins. This happens with possibility 2 1 .
For 1 1 < t A < 1 2 , fix t A . Then the possibility P ( t A < t B ) = 2 1 ( 1 3 − t A ) . Integration over all t A ∈ [ 1 1 , 1 2 ] gives: ∫ 1 1 1 2 2 1 ( 1 3 − t A ) d t A = 2 1 [ 1 3 t A − 2 1 t A 2 ] 1 1 1 2 = 4 3
Hence the total possibility Adam wins is: 2 1 ⋅ 1 + 2 1 ⋅ 4 3 = 8 7
Could you elaborate the integration part...? (Including the intro of dtA)
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Hi Sunseel,
Of course, I'd love to! I hope following explanation is satisfactory:
For a given t A we have found the probability of t B being bigger than t A to be P ( t A < t B ) = 2 1 ( 1 3 − t A ) . But this was only for a specific, fixed t A . Note that t A is a variable in P ( t A < t B ) . By integrating P ( t A < t B ) over t A on the interval, where they overlap ( t A = t B = t ∈ [ 1 1 , 1 2 ] ), we will get the total possibility that t B is bigger than a randomly chosen t A on the interval.
d t A is just introduced to complete the integration. It might have been better referring to the t A in the integration as simply t .
It might be elucidating to look at the drawing made by Gueorgiev. What i do is find the area of the white, dotted sections in the interval 11 to 12 of Adam's time.
Here's a visual representation of what happens:
We simulate lots of races, the red dot represents Adam, the blue one represents Benjamin. The lines on the right show who won that specific race and there are overall statistics at the bottom. We can see, that the ratio is really close to 8 7 which is 0 . 8 7 5 .
I realize this is not a complete solution, but only a simulation using programming.
(Here's another picture with much more races and without the connecting lines):
We can just think through this logically. The total probability that A will win is the sum of all probabilities in all scenarios where A wins. By my count, there are 3 such scenarios.
Scenario 1 : t A < 1 1 s . A can have a time less than 11 seconds and it is impossible for B to win. This will happen exactly 1/2 of the time. This is because all of the times for both runners are evenly distributed and continuous, so half of the time A will be faster than B.
Scenario 2 : 1 2 s ≥ t A ≥ 1 1 s & t B > 1 2 s . 1 2 s ≥ t A ≥ 1 1 s happens 1/2 of the time. However, t B > 1 2 s also happens 1/2 of the time. So the probability of this scenario happening is 1/2 * 1/2 = 1/4.
Scenario 3 : 1 2 s ≥ t A ≥ 1 1 s & 1 2 s ≥ t B ≥ 1 1 s . Once again, we see that this scenario will only happen 1/4 of the time. However, this condition doesn't guarantee either runner a win. We need to additionally ask, what is the probability that A and B pick a time between 11s and 12s and t A < t B . I'm going to impose a condition that I've been secretly doing this whole time: P ( t A = t B ) = 0 . Why can I do this? Well, this question is no different from asking 2 people to pick a real number from 0 to 1 inclusive and asking what the probability is that they both pick exactly the same number. It might be possible, but the probability is technically zero. There are infinite numbers to choose from for both people, and it is so exceedingly unlikely that they choose the same exact number that we say the probability is zero. So now, what is the probability that t A < t B in this scenario? 1/2 of course! Again, it's like just picking 2 numbers from 0 to 1 on the number line at random and asking the probability that the first number will be smaller. Since either case is equally likely (by symmetry) and we have imposed that picking the same number isn't allowed there are only 2 possible outcomes. So in this third scenario (which occurs with 1/4 probability), there's a 1/2 probability that t A < t B .
So adding it all up we get, P ( t A < t B ) = P ( S c e n a r i o 1 ) + P ( S c e n a r i o 2 ) + 2 1 P ( S c e n a r i o 3 ) = 2 1 + 4 1 + 2 1 4 1 = 8 7
I know this was extremely wordy, but that was my full thought process for this problem.
Here’s a programming solution to the problem:
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Comment: the question said Adam's times were 10-12 seconds and Benjamin's were 11-13. It asked what portion of the times Adam wins. The answers ran from 1/2 - 7/8. None of the answers were correct. Benjamin wins 7/8 races NOT Adam.
Solution: There are four basic cases:
Adam 10-11 Benjamin 11-12, Benjamin wins
Adam 10-11 Benjamin 12-13, Benjamin wins
Adam 11-12 Benjamin 11-12, Either could win
Adam 11-12 Benjamin 12-13, Benjamin wins
So, Benjamin is guaranteed to win 3 of 4 races. Because of the uniform distribution, there is an equal chance that either wins the other 1 of 4 races: 1/2 go to Adam and 1/2 to Benjamin, giving 1 of 8 races to each.
Therefore Benjamin wins 7 out of 8 races, and Adam wins 1 out of 8.
Faster time wins.. Not longer
The random variable of interest is the difference between finish times. A difference is the same as a sum but negating one of the terms. The probability density function (pdf) of two independent random variables is the convolution of the two pdfs. Thus the difference in finishing times (Adam minus Ben) is the convolution of uniform(10, 12) with uniform(-13,-11). The convolution of two rectangle signals is a triangle. So the pdf will be an isosceles triangle whose base is from the minimum (10-13=-3) to the maximum (12-11=1). The height of the triangle will be maximum when the two rectangles are perfectly aligned, in which case the product of the two rectangles will be (1/2)(1/2)=1/4 times their width of 2 equals 1/2, and this is the peak of the triangle. As expected the total area of the triangle is 1 (two half triangles of area (1/2)(2)(1/2)). Adam wins whenever the convolved random variable is less than zero, which is the interval from -3 to 0. The part of the triangle where Ben wins is the interval 0 to 1. At t=0, the triangle is half way down from its peak of 1/2 and has a height of 1/4. The probability of Ben winning is therefore the area of this 0 to 1 triangle with base=1 and height=1/4. This area is 1/8. Adam wins in all other cases, which means he wins 7/8 of the time.
can you explain graphically or by some visual means.
This means Adams chance of winning (W) is W = A + B
W = 8 7 = 87.5%
Benjamins performance can be a 50% chance of winning 25% of the time and a 50% chance of winning 0% of the time.
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