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Nice explanation Akhil .
Is correct to take ith root?
Good explanation dude
But theta could be any pi/2 +2kpi where k is an integer. So i^i could have a value other than 0.208?
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First a fall, we usually talks about principle value and the other thing is if you go beyong principle values, only answer will change but it will still remain real..
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Your explanation is good but I don't thing we can raise any thing but iota ..
Very easy to understand explanation.
nice good explanation
By using Euler's theorem we got it is real but what about except Euler's theorem
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If you don't use (or don't know) Euler's theorem, there is just no solution because you cannot do the square root of a negative number, that doesn't exist... (sorry if you don't understand what I tried to explain, I speak french)
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And how can you raise any thing by a power of iota ...?
Using the properties of logarithms and the identity e i π = − 1 : L n ( i i ) = i L n ( i ) = i L n ( − 1 ) 1 / 2 = 2 i L n ( − 1 ) = 2 i L n ( e i π ) = 2 1 i . i π L n ( e ) = − 2 1 π ∴ i i = e − 2 1 π
Great explanation! You & Muhammad both nailed it, with great explanations. However, to me, this one seems simpler / easier to get. Thanks!
Euler was great...
Can you post the solution?
Yeah he was!
Here is how I figured it out using simple algebra. Let i i = m for any m Then i 4 i = m 4 ( i 4 ) i = m 4 m 4 = 1 Thus m is definitely real.
here, m may not be real also. here we can say m=i.
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Oh yes. I missed that part :P . But this is enough for me to say that the statement ' i i is real' is not false.. :D
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@Manish Mayank Your reasoning is incorrect.Is a statement is false in even 1 case(even if it may be true in ALL the other cases) then it is termed as FALSE.
This soln is good..nice idea..
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Not intending to criticize here,but he just said that m 4 = 1 .To say that that statement implies that m is real is incorrect.Because here, m can be 1 , − 1 , i or − i .All of those values raised to the fourth power give the answer 1
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Hmm..yes..but the way he proved was good..
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@Manisha Bhosley – What I'm trying to say is that his proof is incorrect.
Thanks for this explanation. I am ignorant to math theories so the basic algebraic version helps me see it.
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Yes, I am ignorant to those pesky theories too..... unless I understand them... :P haha
This is the same manner how i did...!!
It is equal to e raised to power -π/2
You have to show the entire solution,not the answer.
Let's put i i = a + b i . Then i i ( a − b i ) = a 2 + b 2 . Unless b = 0 , either i i × a or i i × b i would be imaginary, which is impossible because a 2 + b 2 is real. Therefore b = 0 and i i is real.
i i = e i ln i = e i ln e i 2 π = e i ∗ i ∗ 2 π = e − 2 π = 0 . 2 0 7 8 7 9
((-1)^(1/2))^((-1)^(1/2)) = i^i = 1
( ( − 1 ) ( 2 1 ) ) ( − 1 ) ( 2 1 ) ) = i i = 1
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Using Euler's formula,
e i θ = cos θ + i sin θ Put θ = 2 π e i 2 π = cos 2 π + i sin 2 π e i 2 π = i Raising i-th power to both sides, e i 2 2 π = i i = − 1 − 1 − 1 − 1 = e − 2 π = 0 . 2 0 8 = real number ( ∵ i 2 = − 1 )