Really Complex

Algebra Level pending

True or False

1 1 \Large \sqrt{-1}^{\ \sqrt{-1}} is a real number.

False True

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9 solutions

Akhil Bansal
Sep 28, 2015

Using Euler's formula,
e i θ = cos θ + i sin θ e^{i\theta} = \cos\theta + i\sin\theta Put θ = π 2 \text{Put} \ \theta = \dfrac{\pi}{2} e i π 2 = cos π 2 + i sin π 2 e^{i\frac{\pi}{2}} = \cos\dfrac{\pi}{2} + i\sin\dfrac{\pi}{2} e i π 2 = i e^{i\frac{\pi}{2}} = i Raising i-th power to both sides, \text{Raising i-th power to both sides,} e i 2 π 2 = i i = 1 1 e^{i^2\frac{\pi}{2}} = i^i = \sqrt{-1}^{\sqrt{-1}} 1 1 = e π 2 = 0.208 = real number ( i 2 = 1 ) \sqrt{-1}^{\sqrt{-1}} = e^{-\dfrac{\pi}{2}} = 0.208 = \text{real number} \quad \quad ( \because i^2 = -1)

Nice explanation Akhil .

Jeffin Lukose - 5 years, 8 months ago

Is correct to take ith root?

Harshall Chaudhari - 5 years, 8 months ago

Good explanation dude

akas ghosh - 5 years, 8 months ago

But theta could be any pi/2 +2kpi where k is an integer. So i^i could have a value other than 0.208?

Kevdawg Liu - 5 years, 8 months ago

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First a fall, we usually talks about principle value and the other thing is if you go beyong principle values, only answer will change but it will still remain real..

Akhil Bansal - 5 years, 8 months ago

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Your explanation is good but I don't thing we can raise any thing but iota ..

tumun shaily - 5 years, 7 months ago

Very easy to understand explanation.

Sipa Sutapa - 5 years, 8 months ago

nice good explanation

Ahmad Ali - 5 years, 8 months ago

By using Euler's theorem we got it is real but what about except Euler's theorem

Hitesh solanki - 5 years, 8 months ago

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If you don't use (or don't know) Euler's theorem, there is just no solution because you cannot do the square root of a negative number, that doesn't exist... (sorry if you don't understand what I tried to explain, I speak french)

Émily Holmes - 5 years, 8 months ago

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And how can you raise any thing by a power of iota ...?

tumun shaily - 5 years, 7 months ago
Curtis Clement
Oct 7, 2015

Using the properties of logarithms and the identity e i π = 1 \ e^{i \pi} = -1 : L n ( i i ) = i L n ( i ) = i L n ( 1 ) 1 / 2 = i 2 L n ( 1 ) \ Ln( i^i) = i Ln (i) = i Ln (-1)^{1/2} = \frac{i}{2} Ln (-1) = i 2 L n ( e i π ) = 1 2 i . i π L n ( e ) = 1 2 π \ = \frac{i}{2} Ln (e^{i \pi }) = \frac{1}{2} i.i \pi Ln (e) = - \frac{1}{2} \pi i i = e 1 2 π \therefore\ i^i = e^{ - \frac{1}{2} \pi }

Great explanation! You & Muhammad both nailed it, with great explanations. However, to me, this one seems simpler / easier to get. Thanks!

Mike Williamson - 5 years, 8 months ago

Euler was great...

Can you post the solution?

Muhammad Humaiz Anjum - 5 years, 8 months ago

Yeah he was!

Muhammad Humaiz Anjum - 5 years, 8 months ago
Manish Mayank
Oct 3, 2015

Here is how I figured it out using simple algebra. Let i i = m i^i = m for any m Then i 4 i = m 4 i^{4i} = m^4 ( i 4 ) i = m 4 (i^4)^i = m^4 m 4 = 1 m^4 = 1 Thus m m is definitely real.

here, m may not be real also. here we can say m=i.

Shafi Uddin - 5 years, 8 months ago

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Oh yes. I missed that part :P . But this is enough for me to say that the statement ' i i i^i is real' is not false.. :D

Manish Mayank - 5 years, 8 months ago

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@Manish Mayank Your reasoning is incorrect.Is a statement is false in even 1 case(even if it may be true in ALL the other cases) then it is termed as FALSE.

Abdur Rehman Zahid - 5 years, 8 months ago

This soln is good..nice idea..

Manisha Bhosley - 5 years, 8 months ago

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Not intending to criticize here,but he just said that m 4 = 1 m^4=1 .To say that that statement implies that m m is real is incorrect.Because here, m m can be 1 , 1 , i or i 1,-1, i \text{or} -i .All of those values raised to the fourth power give the answer 1

Abdur Rehman Zahid - 5 years, 8 months ago

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Hmm..yes..but the way he proved was good..

Manisha Bhosley - 5 years, 8 months ago

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@Manisha Bhosley What I'm trying to say is that his proof is incorrect.

Abdur Rehman Zahid - 5 years, 7 months ago

Thanks for this explanation. I am ignorant to math theories so the basic algebraic version helps me see it.

Tawney Vaughan - 5 years, 8 months ago

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Yes, I am ignorant to those pesky theories too..... unless I understand them... :P haha

Manish Mayank - 5 years, 8 months ago

This is the same manner how i did...!!

Perugu Patel - 5 years, 8 months ago
Zeeshan Ali
Oct 3, 2015

It is equal to e raised to power -π/2

You have to show the entire solution,not the answer.

Abdur Rehman Zahid - 5 years, 8 months ago
Nelson Medina
Oct 8, 2015

Let's put i i = a + b i i^{i} = a + bi . Then i i ( a b i ) = a 2 + b 2 i^{i}(a-bi) = a^2+b^2 . Unless b = 0 b=0 , either i i × a i^{i}\times a or i i × b i i^{i}\times bi would be imaginary, which is impossible because a 2 + b 2 a^2+b^2 is real. Therefore b = 0 b=0 and i i i^{i} is real.

Jun Arro Estrella
Dec 19, 2015

it equals e^(-pi/2)

Mohammed Al Salti
Oct 11, 2015

i i = e i ln i = e i ln e i π 2 = e i i π 2 = e π 2 = 0.207879 i^i = e^{i\ln{i}} = e^{i\ln{e^{i\dfrac{\pi}{2}}}} = e^{i*i*\dfrac{\pi}{2}} = e^{-\dfrac{\pi}{2}} = 0.207879

Callum Goodall
Oct 8, 2015

((-1)^(1/2))^((-1)^(1/2)) = i^i = 1

( ( 1 ) ( 1 2 ) ) ( 1 ) ( 1 2 ) ) = i i 1 ((-1)^(\frac{1}{2}))^{(-1)^(\frac{1}{2})})=i^{i}\neq 1

Abdur Rehman Zahid - 5 years, 8 months ago

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