Resembling Resemblence

Calculus Level 5

If

I = 0 1 0 1 ln Γ ( x + y 3 ) d x d y = A B + C D ln 2 π I=\displaystyle\int\limits_0^1{\int\limits_0^1{\ln\Gamma\left({x+{y^3}}\right)}}dxdy =-\dfrac{A}{{B}}+\dfrac{C}{D}\ln 2\pi

and g.c.d ( A , B ) = 1 \text{g.c.d}(A,B)=1 also gcd ( C , D ) = 1 \text{gcd}(C,D)=1 find A + B + C + D 1 A+B+C+D-1


Also try Part-2 and Part-3

Where, Γ ( t ) = 0 x t 1 e x d x \Gamma(t)=\displaystyle\int_{0}^{\infty}x^{t-1}e^{-x}dx


The answer is 25.

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2 solutions

Parth Lohomi
Aug 17, 2015

If you have another approach then do post it .


Let f ( u ) = 0 1 log Γ ( z + u ) d z f(u)=\displaystyle \int_0^1 \log\Gamma(z+u) dz

f ( u ) = 0 1 Γ ( z + u ) Γ ( z + u ) d z = [ log Γ ( z + u ) ] 0 1 = log Γ ( u + 1 ) Γ ( u ) = log u \color{#3D99F6}{f'(u) =\displaystyle\int_0^1 \dfrac{\Gamma'(z+u)}{\Gamma(z+u)}dz = \Big[\log\Gamma(z+u)\Big]_{0}^{1} = \log\dfrac{\Gamma(u+1)}{\Gamma(u)} = \log u}

Integrating this gives us f ( u ) = f ( 0 ) + u log u u f(u) = f(0) + u\log u - u .So

f ( 0 ) = 0 1 log Γ ( z ) d z = 1 2 0 1 log ( Γ ( z ) Γ ( 1 z ) ) d z f(0) = \displaystyle\int_0^1\log\Gamma(z)dz = \frac12\int_0^1\log(\Gamma(z)\Gamma(1-z))dz = 1 2 0 1 log π sin π z d z =\frac12 \int_0^1\log\frac{\pi}{\sin\pi z} dz = 1 2 ( log π 1 π 0 π log sin θ d θ ) = 1 2 log ( 2 π ) =\frac12\left(\log\pi - \frac{1}{\pi}\int_0^{\pi}\log \sin\theta d\theta\right) =\frac12\log(2\pi)^{**}

This gives us

f ( u ) = 1 2 log ( 2 π ) + u log u u \color{#D61F06}{f(u) = \frac12\log(2\pi) + u\log u - u}

so,

I = 0 1 f ( y 3 ) d y = 0 1 ( 1 2 log ( 2 π ) + y 3 log ( y 3 ) y 3 ) d y = 1 2 log ( 2 π ) + [ 3 16 y 4 ( log ( y 4 ) 1 ) 1 4 y 4 ] 0 1 = 1 2 log ( 2 π ) 7 16 \begin{aligned} I = \int_0^1 f(y^3) dy = & \int_0^1 \big(\frac12\log(2\pi) + y^3 \log(y^3) - y^3\big) dy\\ = & \frac12\log(2\pi) + \left[\frac{3}{16}y^4(\log(y^4)-1) - \frac14 y^4\right]_0^1\\ = & \boxed{\color{#20A900}{\frac12\log(2\pi) - \frac{7}{16}}} \end{aligned}

@Parth Lohomi you are super intelligent, you know so much of calculus just at the age of 14.

Shubhendra Singh - 5 years, 10 months ago

Very smart approach!

Mine involved the use of Raabe's Formula .

Hasan Kassim - 5 years, 9 months ago

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POST POST POST POST!!

Pi Han Goh - 5 years, 9 months ago

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@Pi Han Goh even parth used Raabe's Formula.

Aditya Kumar - 5 years, 9 months ago

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@Aditya Kumar yes parth have proved it

Hasan Kassim - 5 years, 9 months ago

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@Hasan Kassim @Hasan Kassim can u help me by telling me some books from where I can learn such concepts. I'm new to these concepts.

Aditya Kumar - 5 years, 9 months ago

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@Aditya Kumar Actually, I don't have a book . I learn such topics and ideas from exploring different calculus problems and sites... Such as wolfram alpha and wikipedia...

For example, I didn't know the Raabe's formula until I solved this problem in a very long method :)

Hasan Kassim - 5 years, 9 months ago

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@Hasan Kassim That's what I'm currently doing! I hope I reach upto your level 1 day.

Aditya Kumar - 5 years, 9 months ago

@Aditya Kumar Sorry I don't understand all these alien symbols. So I don't know what you guys are talking about.

Pi Han Goh - 5 years, 9 months ago

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@Pi Han Goh Even I'm not so good at questions of this level. It took me 3 days to solve it. I'm thinking of posting few important basic problems which can be used to solve these amazing problems. Should I post them??

Aditya Kumar - 5 years, 9 months ago

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@Aditya Kumar Yes please!!! It's great that the community can solve more problems. Plus, I haven't seen much calculus problem that doesn't give me headache!

Pi Han Goh - 5 years, 9 months ago

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@Pi Han Goh Haha sure. Today I'll post at least 2 problems.

Aditya Kumar - 5 years, 9 months ago

^{**}\implies We are using the result 1 π 0 π log sin θ d θ = log 2 \frac{1}{\pi}\int_0^{\pi}\log\sin\theta d\theta = -\log 2

Parth Lohomi - 5 years, 10 months ago

A+B+C+D=26 not 25

Pi Han Goh - 5 years, 10 months ago

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Fixed,thanks!

Parth Lohomi - 5 years, 10 months ago

Woah! generaliztion is a key to tough problems of calculus!

Aditya Kumar - 5 years, 9 months ago
Aditya Kumar
Mar 10, 2016

By Raabe's Formula, we get: 0 1 ln Γ ( x + α ) d x = 1 2 ln 2 π + α log α α ; α 0 , \int_0^1 \ln\Gamma\left(x+\alpha\right)\ dx =\frac{1}{2}\ln2\pi+\alpha \log \alpha -\alpha\quad;\quad \alpha \geq 0,

This is a well known identity: 0 1 x α ln n x d x = ( 1 ) n n ! ( α + 1 ) n + 1 , for n = 0 , 1 , 2 , \int_0^1 x^\alpha \ln^n x\ dx=\frac{(-1)^n n!}{(\alpha+1)^{n+1}}, \qquad\text{for }\ n=0,1,2,\ldots

The inner integral comes out to be: 0 1 ln Γ ( x + y 3 ) d x = 1 2 ln 2 π + 3 y 3 ln y y 3 \int_0^1 \ln\Gamma\left(x+y^3\right)\ dx=\frac{1}{2}\ln2\pi+3y^3 \ln y -y^3

Therefore on evaluating the outer integral, we get: 0 1 0 1 ln Γ ( x + y 3 ) d x d y = 0 1 ( 1 2 ln 2 π + 3 y 3 ln y y 3 ) d y = 1 2 ln 2 π 3 4 2 1 4 = 1 2 ln 2 π 7 16 . \begin{aligned} \int_0^1\int_0^1 \ln\Gamma\left(x+y^3\right)\ dx\ dy&=\int_0^1 \left(\frac{1}{2}\ln2\pi+3y^3 \ln y -y^3\right)\ dy\\ &=\frac{1}{2}\ln2\pi-\frac{3}{4^2}-\frac14\\ &=\large\color{#3D99F6}{\frac{1}{2}\ln2\pi-\frac{7}{16}}.\end{aligned}

@Pi Han Goh this is another way by Raabe's formula.

Aditya Kumar - 5 years, 3 months ago

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Pi Han Goh - 5 years, 3 months ago

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Hahaha. Where do u get such cool gifs from?

Aditya Kumar - 5 years, 3 months ago

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@Aditya Kumar giphy.com

Pi Han Goh - 5 years, 3 months ago

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