Rotating cone.

A solid uniform cone having height and radius R R both, is given an angular velocity ω 0 \omega_{0} about its symmetry axis without any translational velocity, and its base kept on a surface having coefficient of kinetic friction μ k \mu_{k} . Find the the time in seconds after which its stops rotating.

Details and assumptions

  • R = 49 cm R = 49 \text{ cm}
  • ω 0 = 20 rad/s \omega_{0} = 20\text{ rad/s}
  • μ k = 0.06 \mu_{k} = 0.06
  • g = 9.8 m/s 2 g = 9.8\text{ m/s}^2


The answer is 10.

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2 solutions

Pranav Arora
Jan 7, 2014

As there is friction, it retards the motion of cylinder by exerting torque. Our aim is to find this torque.

Consider a cylinder of radius r r and thickness d r dr as shown below:

The mass of this cylinder, d m dm is ρ d V = 2 ρ π r ( R r ) d r \rho dV=2\rho \pi r(R-r)\,dr where ρ \rho is the mass density of cone.

The frictional torque acting on the cylinder is given by μ ( d m ) g r = 2 ρ π r 2 μ g ( R r ) d r \mu (dm)gr=2\rho \pi r^2\mu g(R-r)\,dr . Hence, the net torque is:

0 R 2 ρ π r 2 μ g ( R r ) d r = ρ π μ g R 4 6 \displaystyle \int_0^R2\rho \pi r^2\mu g(R-r)\,dr=\frac{\rho \pi \mu g R^4}{6} .

Equating, the above with the I α I\alpha where I I is the moment of inertia of solid cone about the symmetry axis and α \alpha is the angular retardation,

ρ π μ g R 4 6 = I α = 3 10 ( ρ × 1 3 π R 2 × R ) R 2 α \displaystyle \frac{\rho \pi \mu g R^4}{6}=I\alpha=\frac{3}{10}\left(\rho \times \frac{1}{3}\pi R^2\times R\right)R^2\alpha

α = 5 μ g 3 R \displaystyle \Rightarrow \alpha=\frac{5\mu g}{3R}

where I have used that I = ( 3 / 10 ) M R 2 I=(3/10)MR^2 for a solid cone.

From the equations of motion, we have

ω f = ω i α t 0 = ω 0 α t t = ω 0 α = 3 ω 0 R 5 μ g \displaystyle \omega_f=\omega_i-\alpha t \Rightarrow 0=\omega_0-\alpha t \Rightarrow t=\frac{\omega_0}{\alpha}=\frac{3\omega_0 R}{5\mu g}

Substituting the values, t = 10 seconds \boxed{t=10\,\,\text{seconds}} .

Having tried to work this one through I realize I am using a different model for the friction. Perhaps there is tradition of modeling the friction as if it were composed from the sum of many elements at the base of the spinning object all bearing down on the surface. Each element pushes down independently of its neighbours and in proportion to the weight of the material directly above each element. This is a model which implies there is no bulk strength in the object in a vertical direction whilst still able to hold it shape under gravity and whilst rotating. If I use a model which assumes that each element pushes down with a force in proportion to its area then I arrive at a different result.

The integral in the above solution then comes out as 2 ρ π μ g R 4 9 {2\rho\pi\mu gR^{4}}\over9

This leads to the stopping time of 7.5s

Ed Sirett - 4 years, 9 months ago

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That is what I exactly did first in modeling the friction and came out with this result, but then I repeated the modeling of friction as mentioned in this solution to get the required ans. , I still think that 7.5 seconds is more accurate as you mentioned that the body is rigid enough and able to hold it`s shape .

Ahmed Aljayashi - 2 years, 3 months ago

I encountered this result as well. The only thing that kept me from considering it to be correct was the restriction that the answer be an integer. That made me reconsider the force under the cone. Note that this result considers the normal force to be evenly distributed, which seems a bit less accurate in the extreme case: it says that the normal force under the center of the cone should equal the normal force under the very thin section at the outer edges.

Jake Deschamps - 1 year, 6 months ago

I also got 7.5 seconds. I am having a hard time understanding why you integrated torque over the volume, and not the surface area of the base. The rotational inertia of three-tenths MR^2 is correct, but the torque created by the friction should be two-thirds MμgR.

Charles Moore - 4 years ago

Underrated Q

Md Junaid - 3 years, 4 months ago

I think pressure caused by the cone to the surface is uniform and you should treat this as a circular contact area with force of the load equal to the weight of the cone. see: http://adaptivemap.ma.psu.edu/websites/friction/disc_friction/discfriction.html

Then the answer comes out as 7.5sec.

red storm - 2 years, 4 months ago

Image isn't available for some reason.

N. Aadhaar Murty - 9 months, 3 weeks ago
Ayush Pateria
Jan 8, 2014

image image

V ( r ) = π r 2 R 2 3 π r 3 V(r) =\pi r^2 R - \frac{2}{3} \pi r^3 d V d r = 2 π r ( R r ) \frac{dV}{dr} = 2 \pi r (R-r) d m = M 1 3 π R 3 2 π r ( R r ) d r dm = \frac{M}{\frac{1}{3} \pi R^3} 2\pi r(R-r)dr

d τ = F f r i c t i o n r d\tau = -F_{friction} r d τ = μ k d m g r d\tau = -\mu_{k} dm g r

τ = 0 R 6 M g μ k r 2 ( R r ) R 3 d r = I α \tau = -\int_0^R \frac{6Mg \mu_{k} r^2(R-r)}{R^3} dr = I\alpha 6 M g μ k R 12 = 3 10 M R 2 α -\frac {6Mg \mu_{k}R}{12} = \frac{3}{10} MR^2 \alpha

Put all the values to get α = 2 r a d / s 2 \alpha = -2 rad/s^2

Now by ω ω 0 = α t \omega - \omega_{0} = \alpha t t = 20 2 = 10 t = \frac{20}{2} = \boxed{10}

but why is calculus needed?... the mass density is also constant...everything is constant here ..can anyone answer my query..?

SANKARSAN SAHA - 4 years, 1 month ago

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the mass element for each dr is not constant

William G. - 3 years, 10 months ago

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mass element ??? can u plz tell me about it...?

SANKARSAN SAHA - 3 years, 10 months ago

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@Sankarsan Saha have you learned calculus? If not, you should learn it.

William G. - 3 years, 10 months ago

Ya I also have the same question...

N DS - 2 years ago

Because the torque due to friction is different for differen positions on the contact surface

Jiya Raj - 1 year, 5 months ago

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