∫ 0 ∞ x e − 2 x − e − π x d x
If the above definite integral equals S , find ⌊ 1 0 0 0 S ⌋ .
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Nice approach converting to double integral, and change order of integration!
Nice . I used frullani integral
Define:
f ( a ) = ∫ 0 ∞ x e − a x − 1 d x ; f ( 0 ) = 0
Differentiating with respect to a, we get
f ′ ( a ) = a − 1
Integrating both sides,
f ( 2 ) − f ( π ) = ∫ π 2 f ′ ( t ) d t = ∫ π 2 t − 1 d t = l n ( 2 π )
Hence, the value of the integral is l n ( 2 π ) .
Creative solution! +1!
Yep i too did the same
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I used changing to a double integral and next fubinis theorem.(changing the order)For a more general case ∫ c o s t x ( e ( − a x ) − e ( − b x ) ) / x = ( 1 / 2 ) l n ( b 2 + t 2 / a 2 + t 2 ) .Now we set t = 0
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Yeah that's also a cool approach . i too learnt Fubini's theorem last year when We got a problem of switching summation and integration in AIITS 3 Of class 11.(i told you na our AIITS 3 Was hell :P). Although i did that in test but later i realised there must be some condition that we can switch an integral and summation . that lead me to Fubini's theorem and saath saath Abel's theorem bhi kr li thi :P. You might have done such questions in binomial theorem where you need to introduce an integral and then switch it to get the sum .
Moreover, have u got schedule for this year's AIITS? . I Guess they should be beginning in early July for u guys , CM Tests will also begin from late june and you will also be having phase 4 in july
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@Prakhar Bindal – We haven't got the schedule.Our course is ahead.For us phase -4 course is over.Now we are in differential equations in maths,chemistry biomolecules over.Physics AC abt to be started.
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@Spandan Senapati – You might like to see fiitjee gwalior site. they always update it early . Well if u r thinking i am online since 40-45 minutes then yes u r right. i am not feeling to study now. what was in my hands i have done it. i will relax till tomorrow and give my best on sunday
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@Prakhar Bindal – Hope you will remain online sometimes after jee advance for helping us!
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@Harsh Shrivastava – Well of course. but first i will take a long break and a vacation to a hill station probably
same here.
We can solve this via Frullani's integral.
∫ 0 ∞ x f ( a x ) − f ( b x ) d x = [ f ( 0 ) − f ( ∞ ) ] ln a b
Setting f ( x ) = e − x , we see that f ( 0 = 1 , and f ( ∞ ) = 0 . Also, based on the problem, a = 2 , and b = π .
So,
∫ 0 ∞ x e − 2 x − e − π x d x = [ 1 − 0 ] ln 2 π ≈ 0 . 7 8 9 1 5 6 2 9
Hence, ⌊ 1 0 0 0 A ⌋ = 7 8 9 .
Oh nice use of frullanis integral.
Best solution. I Completely forgot About Frullani's! +1
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Relevant wiki: Integration Tricks
The given integral is equal to the double integral ∫ 0 ∞ ∫ 2 π e − x y d y d x .
Changing the order of integration, the integral then becomes
∫ 2 π ∫ 0 ∞ e − x y d x d y = ∫ 2 π y 1 d y = ln ( π ) − ln ( 2 ) = 0 . 7 9 8 1 5 6 . . . . ,
and so ⌊ 1 0 0 0 S ⌋ = 7 9 8 .