1 ! 1 7 + 2 ! 1 7 + 2 7 + 3 ! 1 7 + 2 7 + 3 7 + 4 ! 1 7 + 2 7 + 3 7 + 4 7 + …
If the series above equals to W , what is the value of e 2 4 × W ?
Note: e = n → ∞ lim ( 1 + n 1 ) n
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HAHAHA, you're missing out on the most important part, AGAIN!
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What am I missing?
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Your Taylor Series (proof)
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@Pi Han Goh – Well I added a comment to see the method used in the sum of squares note, but I will take the time now to show how I arrived at that expression.
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@Caleb Townsend – Thanks to your comment , I feel the strong urge to generalize
1 ! 1 n + 2 ! 1 n + 2 n + 3 ! 1 n + 2 n + 3 n + 4 ! 1 n + 2 n + 3 n + 4 n + …
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@Pi Han Goh – So , is it done yet ? Do post it as a note when u generalize it . Your methods are always gr8 !
Did the same! But it was tedious! Isn't there any method to do it like this -
n = 1 ∑ ∞ n 7 ( e + 1 ) − n 7 e ( ( n − 1 ) ! Γ ( n , 1 ) )
One can take the gamma function 'back' into integral form and do the calculations then. Actually, I haven't yet worked out the calculations.
Like Caleb's solution, and from equation 27 and apply properties of Bell numbers . The series becomes
= 2 4 1 n = 1 ∑ ∞ n ! 3 n 8 + 1 2 n 7 + 1 4 n 6 − 7 n 4 + 2 n 2 2 4 e [ 3 B 8 + 1 2 B 7 + 1 4 B 6 − 7 B 4 + 2 B 2 ]
Substitute those Bell numbers .
Hence the answer is simply 3 B 8 + 1 2 B 7 + 1 4 B 6 − 7 B 4 + 2 B 2 = 2 5 6 8 5
Saved by the Bell, (number, that is). I was about to proceed as per Caleb's method outlined in the note that inspired this question, then I looked into Bell numbers, (nice hint with the picture, by the way), and realized the same approach as yours. Judging from the length of the OEIS entry and all the references, this sequence of numbers seems to be highly significant.
I have not seen Dobinski's formula before, I have only scratched the surface of combinatorics. That seems to have been useful in this problem.
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You have a nice solution! Yeah, I totally forgotten about the name of the formula until you cited Bell's number then I recalled everything.
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Please see this note for a simpler problem if you have not already seen it. The method used to solve here is the same as that in the note but much lengthier, as a system of 8 equations is required, rather than 3 . The full solution is still posted below.
W = 1 ! 1 7 + 2 ! 1 7 + 2 7 + . . . = n = 1 ∑ ∞ [ n ! ∑ k = 1 n k 7 ] = n = 1 ∑ ∞ [ n ! 2 4 1 n 2 ( n + 1 ) 2 ( 3 n 4 + 6 n 3 − n 2 − 4 n + 2 ) ] = 2 4 1 [ n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( n − 1 ) ! n ( n + 1 ) 2 ( 3 n 4 + 6 n 3 − n 2 − 4 n + 2 ) ] Let S = 2 4 × W , then S = n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( n − 1 ) ! n ( n + 1 ) 2 ( 3 n 4 + 6 n 3 − n 2 − 4 n + 2 ) = n = 0 ∑ ∞ n ! ( n + 1 ) ( n + 2 ) 2 ( 3 n 4 + 1 8 n 3 + 3 5 n 2 + 2 4 n + 6 ) Now define f ( x ) = n = 0 ∑ ∞ n ! ( n + 1 ) ( n + 2 ) 2 ( 3 n 4 + 1 8 n 3 + 3 5 n 2 + 2 4 n + 6 ) x n which is the Taylor series of g ( x ) = e x ( 3 x 7 + 9 6 x 6 + 1 0 6 4 x 5 + 5 0 4 0 x 4 + 1 0 2 0 6 x 3 + 7 7 2 8 x 2 + 1 5 2 4 x + 2 4 ) . Substitute x = 1 and the result is S = e ( 3 + 9 6 + 1 0 6 4 + 5 0 4 0 + 1 0 2 0 6 + 7 7 2 8 + 1 5 2 4 + 2 4 ) = 2 5 6 8 5 e and e S = 2 5 6 8 5 .
Proof that the Taylor series about x = 0 of g ( x ) is f ( x ) .
The numerator of the terms of f ( x ) is a polynomial of degree 7 , and on account of n ! x n , the function whose Maclaurin series is f ( x ) is of the form g ( x ) = e x ( a 1 x 7 + a 2 x 6 + a 3 x 5 + . . . + a 7 x + a 8 ) . The general Maclaurin series of that form is a 8 + ( a 7 + a 8 ) x + ( a 6 + a 7 + 2 a 8 ) x 2 + O ( x 3 ) Compare this to the first several values of n ! ( n + 1 ) ( n + 2 ) 2 ( 3 n 4 + 1 8 n 3 + 3 5 n 2 + 2 4 n + 6 ) x n which are 2 4 , 1 5 4 8 x , 9 2 6 4 x 2 , . . . a 8 = 2 4 a 7 = 1 5 4 8 − 2 4 = 1 5 2 4 a 6 = 9 2 6 4 − 1 5 2 4 − 1 2 = 7 7 2 8 a 5 = 1 8 7 0 0 − 7 7 2 8 − 7 6 2 − 4 = 1 0 2 0 6 . . . continuing this method, a 4 = 5 0 4 0 , a 3 = 1 0 6 4 , a 2 = 9 6 , a 1 = 3 .