Let S k be the area bounded by the curve y = x 2 ( 1 − x ) k and the lines x = 0 , y = 0 and x = 1 . If n → ∞ lim k = 1 ∑ n S k is equal to q p , where p and q are coprime positive integers, find p + q .
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Very neat solution as usual Rishabh! +1
I didn't quite understand how the summation was taken within the integral. By doing that aren't we finding the summation of a different series all together? Would really appreciate it if you could explain the logic behind it.
Thanks!
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Expand the summation for better clarity!! k = 1 ∑ ∞ ∫ 0 1 ( 1 − x ) 2 x k d x
= ∫ 0 1 ( 1 − x ) 2 x d x + ∫ 0 1 ( 1 − x ) 2 x 2 d x + ∫ 0 1 ( 1 − x ) 2 x 3 d x + ⋯ Collect terms:- = ∫ 0 1 ( 1 − x ) 2 ( x + x 2 + x 3 + x 4 + ⋯ ) d x = ∫ 0 1 ( 1 − x ) 2 Infinite GP k = 1 ∑ ∞ x k d x
Check this out
https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/interchanging-summation-with-integral-differentiation-with-integral.564620/
How did you get the first step?
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That's by definition : Area enclosed by the given non negative curve with x-axis b/w x = 0 and x = 1 is given by:
∫ 0 1 x 2 ( 1 − x ) k d x
And then I used: ∫ a b f ( x ) d x = ∫ a b f ( a + b − x ) d x
By inspection: S k = ∫ 0 1 x 2 ( 1 − x ) k d x = B ( 3 , k + 1 )
Here, B ( x , y ) is beta function .
Now we have: k = 1 ∑ ∞ S k = k = 1 ∑ ∞ Γ ( k + 4 ) 2 Γ ( k + 1 )
On splitting the terms using partial fractions, we get: k = 1 ∑ ∞ S k = k = 1 ∑ ∞ [ 2 ( k + 3 ) 1 + 2 ( k + 1 ) 1 − k + 2 1 ]
This, clearly, is a telescoping series. This telescopes to: k = 1 ∑ ∞ S k = 6 1 .
Here, p = 1 and q = 6 . Hence, p + q = 7
Nice solution explaining how to calculate S k .
Why do you need to bring the beta-function in such an easy problem??? You could have just substituted x to 1-x... hehe..
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There's nothing wrong in having alternate solutions. If we have knowledge about anything, we have no restrictions to use it.
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Maths is about elegance, beauty and simplicity. It is a tool to make things easier. It is not about doing an easy question using advanced techniques that people don't have any idea about and showing off that you know maths better than them (It doesn't imply that anyway...)
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@Abhishek Bakshi – I posted an alternate method for users to know that more than one method exists. Sharing solutions isn't showing off.
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@Aditya Kumar – Ok man, please forgive me, i believe my comment was a little too sharp. SORRY!!!... btw how are your jee advanced preparations going??
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@Abhishek Bakshi – Prep is ok-ok. Happy with maths and physics. f * ** ed-up with chem.
@Surya Prakash welcome back!
That's what I did. (+1)
Ah! Amazing! Cheers :)
Even I used beta function. Considering this question to be meant for jee , using beta function saves quite a lot of time,what remains is the evaluation of the telescopic summation which is easy!!!
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Refer to Definite Integration
S k = ∫ 0 1 x 2 ( 1 − x ) k d x = ∫ 0 1 ( 1 − x ) 2 x k d x ( Use ∫ a b f ( x ) d x = ∫ a b f ( a + b − x ) d x ) Hence,
k = 1 ∑ ∞ ∫ 0 1 ( 1 − x ) 2 x k d x = ∫ 0 1 ( 1 − x ) 2 Infinite GP k = 1 ∑ ∞ x k d x = ∫ 0 1 ( 1 − x ) 2 ( 1 − x x ) d x = ∫ 0 1 ( x − x 2 ) d x = 1 / 2 − 1 / 3 = 1 / 6
∴ 1 + 6 = 7