Seven days to go for JEE 2016 - 1

Calculus Level 4

Let S k S_{k} be the area bounded by the curve y = x 2 ( 1 x ) k y=x^2 (1-x)^k and the lines x = 0 x=0 , y = 0 y=0 and x = 1 x=1 . If lim n k = 1 n S k \displaystyle \lim_{n\to\infty} \sum_{k=1}^n S_k is equal to p q \dfrac pq , where p p and q q are coprime positive integers, find p + q p+q .


The answer is 7.

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2 solutions

Rishabh Jain
May 15, 2016

Refer to Definite Integration


S k = 0 1 x 2 ( 1 x ) k d x = 0 1 ( 1 x ) 2 x k d x S_k=\displaystyle\int_0^1x^2(1-x)^k\mathrm{d}x=\displaystyle\int_0^1(1-x)^2x^k\mathrm{d}x ( Use a b f ( x ) d x = a b f ( a + b x ) d x ) \color{teal}{\small{(\text{Use } \displaystyle\int_a^bf(x)\mathrm{d}x= \displaystyle\int_a^bf(a+b-x)\mathrm{d}x)}} Hence,

k = 1 0 1 ( 1 x ) 2 x k d x = 0 1 ( 1 x ) 2 k = 1 x k Infinite GP d x = 0 1 ( 1 x ) 2 ( x 1 x ) d x = 0 1 ( x x 2 ) d x = 1 / 2 1 / 3 = 1 / 6 \large{\begin{aligned}&\displaystyle\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\displaystyle\int_0^1(1-x)^2x^k\mathrm{d}x\\&=\displaystyle\int_0^1(1-x)^2\underbrace{\displaystyle\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}x^k}_{\color{#20A900}{\text{Infinite GP}}}\mathrm{d}x\\&=\displaystyle\int_0^1(1-x)^{\cancel{2}}\left(\dfrac{x}{\cancel{1-x}}\right)\mathrm{d}x\\&=\displaystyle\int_0^1(x-x^2)\mathrm{d}x\\&=1/2-1/3=1/6\large\end{aligned}}

1 + 6 = 7 \Huge\therefore 1+6=\color{#D61F06}{\boxed{\color{#0C6AC7}{7}}}

Very neat solution as usual Rishabh! +1

Pi Han Goh - 5 years, 1 month ago

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T H A N K S ¨ \large\mathbf{THANKS}~\ddot\smile

Rishabh Jain - 5 years, 1 month ago

I didn't quite understand how the summation was taken within the integral. By doing that aren't we finding the summation of a different series all together? Would really appreciate it if you could explain the logic behind it.

Thanks!

Aditya Hegde - 5 years, 1 month ago

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Expand the summation for better clarity!! k = 1 0 1 ( 1 x ) 2 x k d x \displaystyle\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\displaystyle\int_0^1(1-x)^2x^k\mathrm{d}x

= 0 1 ( 1 x ) 2 x d x + 0 1 ( 1 x ) 2 x 2 d x + 0 1 ( 1 x ) 2 x 3 d x + =\displaystyle\int_0^1(1-x)^2x\mathrm{d}x+\int_0^1(1-x)^2x^2\mathrm{d}x+\int_0^1(1-x)^2x^3\mathrm{d}x+\cdots Collect terms:- = 0 1 ( 1 x ) 2 ( x + x 2 + x 3 + x 4 + ) d x =\displaystyle\int_0^1(1-x)^2(x+x^2+x^3+x^4+\cdots)\mathrm{d}x = 0 1 ( 1 x ) 2 k = 1 x k Infinite GP d x =\displaystyle\int_0^1(1-x)^2\underbrace{\displaystyle\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}x^k}_{\text{Infinite GP}}\mathrm{d}x

Rishabh Jain - 5 years, 1 month ago

Check this out

https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/interchanging-summation-with-integral-differentiation-with-integral.564620/

Prakhar Bindal - 5 years, 1 month ago

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Thanks a lot!

Aditya Hegde - 5 years, 1 month ago

How did you get the first step?

Jacob Swenberg - 5 years, 1 month ago

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That's by definition : Area enclosed by the given non negative curve with x-axis b/w x = 0 x=0 and x = 1 x=1 is given by:

0 1 x 2 ( 1 x ) k d x \displaystyle\int_0^1x^2(1-x)^k\mathrm{d}x

And then I used: a b f ( x ) d x = a b f ( a + b x ) d x \displaystyle\int_a^bf(x)\mathrm{d}x= \displaystyle\int_a^bf(a+b-x)\mathrm{d}x

Rishabh Jain - 5 years, 1 month ago
Aditya Kumar
May 15, 2016

By inspection: S k = 0 1 x 2 ( 1 x ) k d x = B ( 3 , k + 1 ) \displaystyle { S }_{ k }=\int _{ 0 }^{ 1 }{ { x }^{ 2 }{ \left( 1-x \right) }^{ k }dx } =B\left( 3,k+1 \right)

Here, B ( x , y ) B(x,y) is beta function .

Now we have: k = 1 S k = k = 1 2 Γ ( k + 1 ) Γ ( k + 4 ) \sum _{ k=1 }^{ \infty }{ { S }_{ k } } =\sum _{ k=1 }^{ \infty }{ \frac { 2\Gamma \left( k+1 \right) }{ \Gamma \left( k+4 \right) } }

On splitting the terms using partial fractions, we get: k = 1 S k = k = 1 [ 1 2 ( k + 3 ) + 1 2 ( k + 1 ) 1 k + 2 ] \sum _{ k=1 }^{ \infty }{ { S }_{ k } } =\sum _{ k=1 }^{ \infty }{ \left[ \frac { 1 }{ 2\left( k+3 \right) } +\frac { 1 }{ 2\left( k+1 \right) } -\frac { 1 }{ k+2 } \right] }

This, clearly, is a telescoping series. This telescopes to: k = 1 S k = 1 6 \displaystyle \sum _{ k=1 }^{ \infty }{ { S }_{ k } } =\frac { 1 }{ 6 } .

Here, p = 1 p=1 and q = 6 q=6 . Hence, p + q = 7 \boxed{p+q=7}

Moderator note:

Nice solution explaining how to calculate S k S_k .

Why do you need to bring the beta-function in such an easy problem??? You could have just substituted x to 1-x... hehe..

Abhishek Bakshi - 5 years ago

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There's nothing wrong in having alternate solutions. If we have knowledge about anything, we have no restrictions to use it.

Aditya Kumar - 5 years ago

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Maths is about elegance, beauty and simplicity. It is a tool to make things easier. It is not about doing an easy question using advanced techniques that people don't have any idea about and showing off that you know maths better than them (It doesn't imply that anyway...)

Abhishek Bakshi - 5 years ago

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@Abhishek Bakshi I posted an alternate method for users to know that more than one method exists. Sharing solutions isn't showing off.

Aditya Kumar - 5 years ago

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@Aditya Kumar Ok man, please forgive me, i believe my comment was a little too sharp. SORRY!!!... btw how are your jee advanced preparations going??

Abhishek Bakshi - 5 years ago

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@Abhishek Bakshi Prep is ok-ok. Happy with maths and physics. f * ** ed-up with chem.

Aditya Kumar - 5 years ago

@Surya Prakash welcome back!

Aditya Kumar - 5 years, 1 month ago

That's what I did. (+1)

Hobart Pao - 5 years, 1 month ago

Ah! Amazing! Cheers :)

B.S.Bharath Sai Guhan - 5 years, 1 month ago

Even I used beta function. Considering this question to be meant for jee , using beta function saves quite a lot of time,what remains is the evaluation of the telescopic summation which is easy!!!

A Former Brilliant Member - 3 years, 8 months ago

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