If a and b are reals such that a − n 1 ≤ b ≤ a + n 1 for all positive integers n , then which of the following is true?
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One of the most fundamental properties of the real numbers is the Archimedean property : if a number x ≥ 0 satisfies that x ≤ n 1 for all positive integer n , then x = 0 . In some constructions of real numbers, this is a theorem that follows from the basic axioms; in other constructions, this is taken as an axiom (so the set of real numbers is an object that satisfies certain properties, including Archimedean property).
With this, the proof is rather straightforward. First, we need to prove a few of the most basic properties, like commutativity/associativity/inverse of addition and stuff. Next, we need to show that if x ≤ y for some reals x , y , then x + z ≤ y + z for all real z ; also, if x ≤ y , then − y ≤ − x . With this, we can now represent b = a + c , so the inequalities become a − n 1 ≤ a + c ≤ a + n 1 for all positive integer n ; if we can show − n 1 ≤ c ≤ n 1 implies c = 0 , we're done. But this final part can be done by Archimedean property as well; c ≤ n 1 means c ≤ 0 , and − n 1 ≤ c means − c ≤ n 1 , so − c ≤ 0 , so 0 ≤ c . Thus 0 ≤ c ≤ 0 , and we can show that c = 0 . This shows that a = b .
Relevant wiki: Squeeze Theorem
Since the inequality a − n 1 ≤ b ≤ a + n 1 is true for all positive integers n , then it is true for:
n → ∞ lim ( a − n 1 ) a ⟹ ≤ b ≤ n → ∞ lim ( a + n 1 ) ≤ b ≤ a a = b By squeeze theorem
let say that a > b so we must have a fix real number ϵ such that a = b + ϵ . Define N = ⌈ ϵ 1 ⌉ if the statement is true how about when n > N ? a contradiction now let say a < b so a = b − ϵ . Define M = ⌊ ϵ 1 ⌋ how about n < M ? a contradiction so a = b
I don't really understand your solution. Are you implying that because no such fixed ϵ exist, the statement is false?
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yes i mean if you asume that a > b or a < b you will get a contradiction
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i doubt that strongly ! i think you're explanation is wrong the answer should be Can't tell ! as all are possibilities either a>b or a=b or even a<b
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@A Former Brilliant Member – no the answer should be a = b you can use limit lim n → ∞ a − n 1 ≤ lim n → ∞ b ≤ lim n → ∞ a + n 1 this means that a ≤ b ≤ a or a = b
If a=b we've got: a − n 1 ≤ a ≤ a + n 1 By decreasing with a the entire inequality we will get: n − 1 ≤ 0 ≤ n 1 which is true.
a − n 1 ≤ b ≤ a + n 1 → a n − 1 ≤ b n ≤ a n + 1 → a = b we get.
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Consider the first inequality, that is, a − n 1 ≤ b
Taking n → ∞ , and noting that lim n → ∞ n 1 = 0 (as a consequence of the Archimedian property), we deduce that a ≤ b
Similarly, the other inequality gives b ≤ a
Hence, we conclude that a = b