x 0 + x 1 + x 2 + x 3 + … = 1 , x = ?
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Well... it is debatable whether 0 0 = 1 or not. It is useful to define it as 1 but not all mathematicians agree on that. See this Brilliant Discussion
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Yeah, I assumed 0 0 = 1.
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Same here :(
Yeah even my windows calculator showed 0^0=1 but still i chose yes
I know it's only in power towers that
0 0 = 1
n a = a a a ⋅ ⋅ a
2 0 = 0 0 = 1
3 0 = 0 0 0 = 0
4 0 = 0 0 0 0 = 1
n 0 = 0 0 ⋅ ⋅ 0 = 0
Therefor it will oscillate between 0 and 1 depending on the value of "n" odd or even
Sir I totally agree with you. In maths there are some things that is ridiculous but it's true. For example sum of Natural no. upto infinity is ( - 1/12) so who knows 0 raised to 0 is 1
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That isn't ridiculous actually, the ∑ n = 1 ∞ n = − 1 2 1 . The basic idea is to bring this entire function into the complex plane, so the "normal" rules don't apply.
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@Julian Poon – Yes sir totally agreed, the discussion is very interesting btw what is your opinion about 0 raised to 0
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@Ankit Nigam – By trying to assign a value to a point of "length" 0 (in the 0th dimension), I get the value 0, so I conclude that geometrically speaking, 0 0 = 0
@Julian Poon – how is the summation of all natural numbers equal -1/12? I'm confused :P
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@Pratik Reddy – too much numberphile
@Pratik Reddy – 1-1+1-1+1...=x
1-1+1-1...=x
1=2x
x=1/2
1-2+3-4+5-6+...=y
1-2+3-4+5-...=y
1-1+1-1+1-1+...=2y
x=2y
1/2=2y
y=1/4
1+2+3+4+5+6+...=z
1-2+3-4+5-6+...=y
z-y=4+8+12+16+...
z-y=4(1+2+3+4+...)
z-y=4z
z-1/4=4z
-3z=1/4
z=-1/12
Thus 1+2+3+4+5+...=-1/12
Well 0^0 does not have a unique solution. For. Example x^x goes towards 1 as x goes to 0 (from the right ) but a function like (e^-1/x)^x will go towards 1/e as x goes towards 0 (from the right) Thus even in limits it has no unique solution for 0^0. Now as I said above in complex analysis specifically for power series 0^0 is defined as 1 for convention since x^0=1 for all x not zero. This will keep analytic continuity which over all is key in analysis.
It is not correct to assume 0 0 = 1 because 0 / 0 is not defined. If we think in terms of calculus, For example, lim a → 0 ( a / a ) = 1 because the value of a tends to 0 ,not equal to zero. This means its infinitely small but not equal to zero.
C o n c l u s i o n : 0 0 = 1 is wrong.
0 0 is undefined
There is nothing to debate on this
Check this proof;
We know from the basic laws of indices,
a n a m = a m − n
Then, a b a b = 1 , where b = 0
Hence, we infer a b − b = 1 ⟹ a 0 = 1
Notice that this is possible only when a = 0 . If it had been 0 , then the primitive expression would have been 0 0 , which is indeterminate..
So its clear that 0 0 is undefined.
I've always heard that 0 0 is undefined.
x 0 = 1 , i f x = 0 . x 0 + x 1 + x 2 + x 3 + . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . = 1 .
⇒ 1 + x + x 2 + . . . . . . . . . . . . = 1 .
⇒ x + x 2 + x 3 + x 4 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . = 0 . S o , x = 0 .
So there is a contradiction. No solution.
but we all know, that, any number raised to zero will always be equal to 1?
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We know that any number raised to zero will be equal to 1, but we also know that 0 raised to any number will be equal to 0. By those rules 0 0 is a contradiction. It's undefined, but the limit for x x as x approaches 0 is 1.
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Can you explain why any number raised to 0 is equal to 1 ?
We know that a 0 = 1 if and only if a = 0
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The sum of all the natural numbers is not − 1 2 1
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@Paulo Carlos – Let's assume that:
1 - 1 + 1 - 1 + ... = x
1 - 2 + 3 - 4 + ... = y
1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + ... = z
=>
1 - 1 + 1 - 1 + ... = x
1 - 1 + 1 - 1 + ... = 1 - x
x = 1 - x
x = 1/2
1 - 1 + 1 - 1 + ... = 1/2
1 - 2 + 3 - 4 + ... = y
1 - 1 + 1 - ... = x
1 -(y + 1/2) = y
y = 1/4
1 - 2 + 3 - 4 + ... = 1/4
1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + ... = z
1 - 2 + 3 - 4 + ... = y
4 + 8 + ... = 4z
y + 4z = z
z = -1/12
Therefore sum of all natural numbers is -1/12
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@Jesse Nieminen – It's wrong man. You used the rules that should be used only with finite numbers...
@Jesse Nieminen – The only problem with that assumption is that the infinite sum 1 -1 + 1 - 1+.... does not equal 1/2! If we are to start with incorrect assumptions we can prove anything we want, if you take a partial sum analysis of the sum of all natural numbers it is quite obviously a divergent sum not a convergent one. The guys in the numberphile video are, unfortunately, spouting rubbish based on a partially understood proof.
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@Matthew Bracewell – Why is it incorrect?
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@Jesse Nieminen – It is incorrect as you have to make a slight fudge in order to make it work. In order for the sum to equal 1/2 you have to assume that you can take an average of the 1, 0, 1, oscillation of the answer. Now whilst this is an appropriate thing to do in order to use in a physical world as the numberphile guys do in order to make their string theory work it is inappropriate to do in a purely mathematical field. One of the main things they left out of the video was the special instance that this particular assumption was being used for i.e. a Riemann zeta function.
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@Matthew Bracewell – One of the other things I've just noticed having watched the video again is that he very clearly states that we cannot just add numbers up on a calculator in order to disprove his result of -1/12 as it is an infinite series, however he is quite happy to use the counter example in order to prove that 1-1+1-.. = 1/2 as the only way to make this assumption is to say that "at some point I'm going to have to stop this series" which means you have to take the average. If we were to continue using this same logic or rule then we would also state the same for the sum of all natural numbers which means that we wouldn't get -1/12 we would would get an incredibly large number.
@Paulo Carlos – Is it now? :P -_-. It is ,brother. @Paulo Carlos
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@Mehul Arora – The rules which are used to calculate the sum of all the natural numbers such that the result becomes − 1 2 1 cannot be used with infinite numbers...
Just because an indeterminate form has been encountered doesn't mean there has to be no answer. The limit of an expression that takes an indeterminate form can be any number depending on the expression .
lim x → 0 ∑ n = 0 ∞ x n = 1
so the x in this particular expression must be 0 .
As a matter of convention, it's not uncommon to define 0^0 = 1, so the answer is ambiguous. It would be better to make clear that 0^0 is undefined.
isn't (-1)^0 is 1 ? then odd and even powers would cancel out each other right?
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1 - 1 + 1 - 1 + ... = x
1 - 1 + 1 - 1 + ... = 1 - x
x = 1 - x
x = 1/2
1/2 is not equal to 1
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The value isn't 2 1 either. The sum 1 − 1 + 1 − 1 + … is a famous one, known as Grandi's series (google it). The sum has no defined value since it's a divergent sum. The value 2 1 is only the Cesaro-summation value of that sum, not the actual value.
Even though in general 0^0 does not exist. In complex analysis 0^0=1 in a power series as a convention. So it really should have both answers as correct.
Sum to infinity:
\frac{1}{1 - x} = 1
Therefore 1 - x = 1
\Rightarrow x = 0
0^0=1 confirmed by Google search http://lmgtfy.com/?q=0%5E0
You can also use the Maclaurin series expansion where Sum x^n from 0 to infinity = 1-x, and notice this only converges from 0 to 1 exclusive.
Why isn't 0^0 considered an indeterminate function? As far as I know, 0/0 is an indeterminate function and 0^0 can be converted to an indeterminate function. And there are multiple values for them
isn't -1^{0} is 1 ? then x^{2} would cancel out x^{3} and so on.
Why can't it just be x=-1? Because (-1)^0 =1 and there are the same number of odd and even numbers so the -1s and 1s will cancel surely?
I understand that that 0^{0} is technically non-existent. However, I am fairly sure that most algebra (at least at the level 3 section of this site) assumes that 0^{0} = 1. So, while I understand your premise and the "trick" of this problem, I disagree with the lack of clarification that 0^{0} = 1.
Why can't it be -1?
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Why can't it be -1?
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If it was ( − 1 ) , the series we'd have in LHS is 1 − 1 + 1 − 1 + 1 − 1 + … which is a divergent series (its partial sum values alternate between 1 and 0 ).
Since the series is divergent, it cannot equal 1 in RHS, hence we cannot have ( − 1 ) . Read more about that series here .
If it is ended with a even number then (-1) can be the answer
I find this question suspect. Taking x 0 as a function, convention is to define the function piecewise with the mathematically derived case for x = 0 and 1 for x = 0 . This is no different from the definition of the factorial operation, i.e. x ! = x ( x − 1 ) ! for x = 1 , 2 , 3 , . . . , but 0 ! = 1 . This is to say, just because something is conventional doesn't mean it is not the truth on the matter. When something is convention, that amounts to working mathematicians defining the appropriate term, function, or operator in that way. After which, mathematics proceeds under that definitional constraint. Let's be quite honest, in mathematics definition is EVERYTHING!
0^0 is defined as 1 Search on net. Other wise assume x<1 As it cant be more than 1 obviously It's a gp till infinity therefore 1/(1-x)=1 Hence x=0
I don't agree... I've learned that the definition of x α is threefold :
So, in this case : ⇔ ⇔ ⇔ k ≥ 0 ∑ x k k ≥ 1 ∑ x k x k ≥ 0 ∑ x k x = 0 = 1 = 0 = 0 OR k ≥ 0 ∑ x k = 0 (which is not the case)
Hence : x = 0
Some do define 0(exp 0)=1, removing the discontinuity in the complex plane. The question does not clarify which level to assume.
0^0 can be de fined as 1 in many situations. For all intensive purposes, since 1×0 is 0, then 0/0 can give one then 0^0 can give 1
what is 0^0
None. 0 can't be the answer because 0^0 is undefined. Plugging in -1 gets a very famous series that usually is considered to equal 1/2.
Why can't 0^0 be equal to 1, there are several pages which give 0^0 = 1, the google calculator being one.... 0^0 is even defined by the IEEE to be equal to 1...
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but the truth is that 0^0 is undefined
okk let me tell you why
a"M / a^M = a^M-M
here a = 0
0^M/0^M AND 0/0 IS NOT DEFINED
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In differential calculus, if f(x) = x^n then f'(x) = nx^(n-1) is valid at x = 0 only when 0 0 = 1 . But really, it just depends on how you use it although there is a consensus around 0 0 = 1
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@Sutirtha Paul – but here we can simply consider the laws of exponents ....there is no need of calculus ....
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@Tootie Frootie – We can do that but 0 0 = 1 is agreed upon and what I knew....
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@Sutirtha Paul – at different levels we consider different formats and values we have to look at the structure of question ...and try to figure out what the question writer means
It is an infinite geometric progression series. x ( 1+x+x^2+x^3+...)=1
x (1/(1-x)) = 1 ; x= 0.5
The term x 0 is missing.
you are dumb
When there is a summation series of exponents and the answer required is 1 then,
base should be 1 or -1.
Since, the answer 1 will come only if the base is 1 or -1.
Since these are not in the options, the answer is None Of these
Sum of infinite GP, s = a/(1-r) Here, s= 1 = x/(1-x) =>(1-x)=x =>2x=1 =>x=1/2
The first term is 1 not x
I like to think of the given polynomial as a geometric sequence.
Now the sum of all the terms in this polynomial can be evaluated using:
S = 1 − x ( 1 ) ( 1 − x n ) = 1 → 1 − x n = 1 − x → x = x n
The answers to the last equality can be 0,1 and -1 but since the value n is not determined in the question,the answer cannot be any of these.(Also if x = 0 the first term is undefined)
I don't agree... I've learned that the definition of x α is threefold :
So, in this case : ⇔ ⇔ ⇔ k ≥ 0 ∑ x k k ≥ 1 ∑ x k x k ≥ 0 ∑ x k x = 0 = 1 = 0 = 0 OR k ≥ 0 ∑ x k = 0 (which is not the case)
Hence : x = 0
the correct answer is -1 per arithmetic calculation and -1 raised to zero gives 1 :)
I did not understand step 2. Can you please explain ? Thanks.
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Multiply both sides of the equation by (1-x). Everything will cancel out except for x^0 which equals 1.
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Thanks. I still did not still understand step 3 from step 2!!.
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@Niranjan Khanderia – In a small frame like x^0+x^1+x^2, if you multiply that by (1-x), you get x^0-x^3 because all the middle terms cancel out. If the middle terms are never ending, then you can assume that all the middle terms keep on canceling out into infinity, leaving only the first term.
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@Thomas Lee – Thanks a lot. I should have understood that much before!!.
Numbers r infinite so we canot guess the value of x
I did not to the way others depicted: Used a/x-1=1....the sum of G.P. of Infinite terms. where a=1 and got x=2 which is not possible too. So clicked NOTA. I don't know why I am right or where I am wrong.
The sum of a G.P. of infinite terms is not x − 1 a , it is 1 − x a
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so unknowingly, i did wrong! and got write. First time NOTA saved me. though now i know i don't worth these points.
We know that n = 0 ∑ ∞ x n is the power series for 1 − x 1 if ∣ x ∣ < 1 . Solving 1 − x 1 = 1 , we get that x = 0 . However, when we back-substitute x = 0 , we find that one of the terms in the sum is 0 0 , which is an indeterminate form. Thus, there is no solution.
I feel cheated. Again. 0^0 may be indeterminate for some, but not all of us.
Which hinges on whether we define 0^0 as an indeterminate form or equivalent to one.
If it were indeterminate, wouldn't the power series be undefined for x = 0? Not just for |x| > 1.
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x 0 + x 1 + x 2 + x 3 + . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . = 1
⇒ 1 + x + x 2 + . . . . . . . . . . . . = 1
⇒ x + x 2 + x 3 + x 4 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . = 0 . So, x = 0
But, if we check the solution
0 0 + 0 1 + 0 2 + 0 3 + . . . . . . . . . . . = 1
We know that 0 0 is not defined