Infant Monster

Calculus Level 4

2 + n = 2 1 ( x = 1 n 2 0 x t d t ) = ? \large 2 + \sum _{ n=2 }^{ \infty } \frac { 1 }{\small \displaystyle \left(\prod _{ x=1 }^{ n }{ \left| \sqrt { 2 \int _{ 0 }^{ x }{ t \, dt }} \right| } \right) } = \ ?


The answer is 2.718.

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2 solutions

Jake Lai
Jun 22, 2015

First, let's simplify that product:

x = 1 n 2 x d x = x = 1 n 2 × 1 2 x 2 = x = 1 n x = n ! \prod_{x=1}^{n} \left| \sqrt{2 \int x \ dx} \right| = \prod_{x=1}^{n} \left| \sqrt{2 \times \frac{1}{2} x^{2}} \right| = \prod_{x=1}^{n} x = n!

Hence, we have our sum equal to

n = 2 1 n ! = 1 0 ! 1 1 ! + n = 0 1 n ! = 2 + e \sum_{n=2}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n!} = -\frac{1}{0!}-\frac{1}{1!}+\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n!} = -2+e

which can be derived from the Maclaurin series for e x e^{x} . Now, putting this altogether we have

2 + e + 2 = e 2.718 -2+e+2 = \boxed{e \approx 2.718}

What about constant of integration? Why did we ignore that? Also, is extra modulus sign required?

Abhishek Sharma - 5 years, 11 months ago

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square root can be negative too. constant of integration has been edited to 0

Aditya Kumar - 5 years, 11 months ago

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You should know that ( x 2 ) = x \sqrt({x}^{2})=|x| .

Abhishek Sharma - 5 years, 11 months ago

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@Abhishek Sharma Don't sue me for this. I actually used mod to make the problem look difficult. :P

Aditya Kumar - 5 years, 11 months ago
Vaibhav Prasad
Jun 21, 2015

( 1 ( x = 1 n 2 x d x ) ) \large{{ \left( \frac { 1 }{ \left( \prod _{ x=1 }^{ n }{ \left| \sqrt { 2\int { xdx } } \right| } \right) } \right) }}

( 1 ( x = 1 n 2 × x 2 2 ) ) = ( 1 ( x = 1 n x 2 ) ) = 1 ( x = 1 n x ) = 1 x ! \large{{ \left( \frac { 1 }{ \left( \prod _{ x=1 }^{ n }{ \left| \sqrt { 2\times \frac { { x }^{ 2 } }{ 2 } } \right| } \right) } \right) }\\ ={ \left( \frac { 1 }{ \left( \prod _{ x=1 }^{ n }{ \left| \sqrt { { x }^{ 2 } } \right| } \right) } \right) }\\ =\frac { 1 }{ \left( \prod _{ x=1 }^{ n }{ x } \right) } \\ =\frac { 1 }{ x! }}

We know that

n = 0 1 n ! = e \sum _{ n=0 }^{ \infty }{ \frac { 1 }{ n! } } =e

x = 2 1 x ! = e ( 1 0 ! + 1 1 ! ) = e 2 \Rightarrow \sum _{ x=2 }^{ \infty }{ \frac { 1 }{ x! } } =\quad e-(\frac { 1 }{ 0! } +\frac { 1 }{ 1! } )\quad =\quad e-2

Hence, our answer is e 2 + 2 2.718 e-2+2 \approx 2.718

It should be e 2 + 2 2.718 e-2+2\color{#D61F06}{\approx} 2.718 . Using the "equal to" symbol here instead of "approx" symbol is just plain wrong.

Also, as Aditya mentioned, it should be 1 / n ! 1/n! in the 5th line of your solution. Please make the appropriate corrections.

Prasun Biswas - 5 years, 11 months ago

That should've been n ! n! in the 4th step. Anyways thanks for posting a solution. +1

Aditya Kumar - 5 years, 11 months ago

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Please remove the link at the end of the problem. In my opinion, that link is inappropriate.

Prasun Biswas - 5 years, 11 months ago

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