2 + n = 2 ∑ ∞ ( x = 1 ∏ n ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ 2 ∫ 0 x t d t ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ ) 1 = ?
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What about constant of integration? Why did we ignore that? Also, is extra modulus sign required?
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square root can be negative too. constant of integration has been edited to 0
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You should know that ( x 2 ) = ∣ x ∣ .
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@Abhishek Sharma – Don't sue me for this. I actually used mod to make the problem look difficult. :P
( ( ∏ x = 1 n ∣ ∣ 2 ∫ x d x ∣ ∣ ) 1 )
⎝ ⎛ ( ∏ x = 1 n ∣ ∣ ∣ 2 × 2 x 2 ∣ ∣ ∣ ) 1 ⎠ ⎞ = ( ( ∏ x = 1 n ∣ ∣ x 2 ∣ ∣ ) 1 ) = ( ∏ x = 1 n x ) 1 = x ! 1
We know that
∑ n = 0 ∞ n ! 1 = e
⇒ ∑ x = 2 ∞ x ! 1 = e − ( 0 ! 1 + 1 ! 1 ) = e − 2
Hence, our answer is e − 2 + 2 ≈ 2 . 7 1 8
It should be e − 2 + 2 ≈ 2 . 7 1 8 . Using the "equal to" symbol here instead of "approx" symbol is just plain wrong.
Also, as Aditya mentioned, it should be 1 / n ! in the 5th line of your solution. Please make the appropriate corrections.
That should've been n ! in the 4th step. Anyways thanks for posting a solution. +1
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Please remove the link at the end of the problem. In my opinion, that link is inappropriate.
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First, let's simplify that product:
x = 1 ∏ n ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ 2 ∫ x d x ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ = x = 1 ∏ n ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ 2 × 2 1 x 2 ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ = x = 1 ∏ n x = n !
Hence, we have our sum equal to
n = 2 ∑ ∞ n ! 1 = − 0 ! 1 − 1 ! 1 + n = 0 ∑ ∞ n ! 1 = − 2 + e
which can be derived from the Maclaurin series for e x . Now, putting this altogether we have
− 2 + e + 2 = e ≈ 2 . 7 1 8